all questions repeats from nov aiims 2009
total=10 ques
time limit= 5 min
difficulty level=easy
ques1) Spontaneous rhythmic respiration initiated in
a)Prebotzinger complex
b)Dorsal respiratory nuclei
c)pneumataxic centre
d)Ventral respiratory nuclei
ques2)Zn is a cofactor of
a)alcohol dehydrogenase
b)pyruvate dehydrogenase
c)pyruvate decarboxylase
d)alpha keto acid dehydrogenase
ques 3)Which is not a prodrug?
1. Fosinopril
2. Benzopril
3. Quinipril
4. Lisinopril
ques 4)A teacher slapped a student, who then suffered from 25% hearing loss which was healed
by surgery; what kind of injury is this
a) serious injury
b) dangerous injury
c) simple injury
d) grievous injury
ques 5)Section 377 deals with:-
a) unnatural offences
b) rape
c) incest
d) adultery
ques 6)Early neonatal sepsis is caused most commonly in India by
a) group b streptococci
b) E coli
c) klebsiella
d) Pseudomonas
ques 7) Mic-2 positive in
a. Ewing's sarcoma
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
d. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
ques 8)Definition of non vigorous resusciation in meconium stained liquor does not include
a) colour
b) tone
c) respiratory rate
d) heart rate
ques 9)Ideal time of surgery for cryptorchisism
a)neonate
b)1-2 yrs
c)5-8 yrs
d)puberty
ques10)Stimulation of which of the following leads to elevated mood?
1)optic nerve
2)olfactory nerve
3)vagus nerve
4)trigiminal nerve
Wednesday, April 21, 2010
Thursday, April 15, 2010
few things about various histological types of CARCINOMA THYROID
1)most common type = papillary carcinoma
2)most commonly associated with h/o radiation exposure to neck = papillary
latent period for such radiation induced carcinoma = 30 years
3)type not associated with radiation exposure = lymphoma
4)most common type associated with dystrophic calcification= papillary
5)psammoma bodies are seen in = papillary
6)orphan annie eyed nucleus seen in = papillary
7)best prognosis = papillary
8)worst prognosis=anaplastic
9)type associated with lateral aberrant thyroid(cervical metastasis)= papillary
10)type associated with MEN-2 syndrome = medullary
11)type associated with amyloidosis = medullary
12)type derived from parafollicular C cells = medullary
13)type associated with hypocalcaemia = medullary
14)type originating in a case of longstanding multinodular goitre= follicular
15)bony metastasis common in = hurthle cell carcinoma(variant of follicular carcinoma)
16)FNAC not useful in = follicular
2)most commonly associated with h/o radiation exposure to neck = papillary
latent period for such radiation induced carcinoma = 30 years
3)type not associated with radiation exposure = lymphoma
4)most common type associated with dystrophic calcification= papillary
5)psammoma bodies are seen in = papillary
6)orphan annie eyed nucleus seen in = papillary
7)best prognosis = papillary
8)worst prognosis=anaplastic
9)type associated with lateral aberrant thyroid(cervical metastasis)= papillary
10)type associated with MEN-2 syndrome = medullary
11)type associated with amyloidosis = medullary
12)type derived from parafollicular C cells = medullary
13)type associated with hypocalcaemia = medullary
14)type originating in a case of longstanding multinodular goitre= follicular
15)bony metastasis common in = hurthle cell carcinoma(variant of follicular carcinoma)
16)FNAC not useful in = follicular
Wednesday, April 14, 2010
FEW DANGEROUS AREAS !!!
all these have been asked as MCQs before
1)dangerous area of eye = CILIARY REGION (penetrating trauma here makes eye prone to sympathetic ophthalmitis)
2)dangerous area of face = area between upper lip and lower part of nose (infection here can spread to cavernous sinus through facial vein)
3)dangerous area of hand = also k/a area of pulleys or NO MAN'S LAND or zone 2. This lies between the distal palmar crease and the proximal interpalangeal joint.
1)dangerous area of eye = CILIARY REGION (penetrating trauma here makes eye prone to sympathetic ophthalmitis)
2)dangerous area of face = area between upper lip and lower part of nose (infection here can spread to cavernous sinus through facial vein)
3)dangerous area of hand = also k/a area of pulleys or NO MAN'S LAND or zone 2. This lies between the distal palmar crease and the proximal interpalangeal joint.
PURSUIT OF HAPPINESS
Two men, both seriously ill, occupied the same hospital room. One man was allowed to sit up in his bed for an hour a day to drain the fluids from his lungs. His bed was next to the room's only window. The other man had to spend all his time flat on his back.
The men talked for hours on end. They spoke of their wives and families, their homes, their jobs, their involvement in the military service, where they had been on vacation. And every afternoon when the man in the bed next to the window could sit up, he would pass the time by describing to his roommate all the things he could see outside the window.
The man in the other bed would live for those one-hour periods where his world would be broadened and enlivened by all the activity and color of the outside world. The window overlooked a park with a lovely lake, the man had said. Ducks and swans played on the water while children sailed their model boats. Lovers walked arm in arm amid flowers of every color of the rainbow. Grand old trees graced the landscape, and a fine view of the city skyline could be seen in the distance. As the man by the window described all this in exquisite detail, the man on the other side of the room would close his eyes and imagine the picturesque scene.
One warm afternoon the man by the window described a parade passing by. Although the other man could not hear the band, he could see it in his mind's eye as the gentleman by the window portrayed it with descriptive words. Unexpectedly, an alien thought entered his head: Why should hehave all the pleasure of seeing everything while I never get to see anything? It didn't seem fair. As the thought fermented, the man felt ashamed at first. But as the days passed and he missed seeing more sights, his envy eroded into resentment and soon turned him sour. He began to brood and found himself unable to sleep. He should be by that window - and that thought now controlled his life.
Late one night, as he lay staring at the ceiling, the man by the window began to cough. He was choking on the fluid in his lungs. The other man watched in the dimly lit room as the struggling man by the window groped for the button to call for help. Listening from across the room, he never moved, never pushed his own button which would have brought the nurse running. In less than five minutes, the coughing and choking stopped, along with the sound of breathing. Now, there was only silence--deathly silence.
The following morning, the day nurse arrived to bring water for their baths. When she found the lifeless body of the man by the window, she was saddened and called the hospital attendant to take it away--no words, no fuss. As soon as it seemed appropriate, the man asked if he could be moved next to the window. The nurse was happy to make the switch and after making sure he was comfortable, she left him alone.
Slowly, painfully, he propped himself up on one elbow to take his first look. Finally, he would have the joy of seeing it all himself. He strained to slowly turn to look out the window beside the bed. It faced a blank wall.
Moral of the story:
The pursuit of happiness is a matter of choice...it is a positive attitude we consciously choose to express. It is not a gift that gets delivered to our doorstep each morning, nor does it come through the window. And I am certain that our circumstances are just a small part of what makes us joyful. If we wait for them to get just right, we will never find lasting joy.
The pursuit of happiness is an inward journey. Our minds are like programs, awaiting the code that will determine behaviors; like bank vaults awaiting our deposits. If we regularly deposit positive, encouraging, and uplifting thoughts, if we continue to bite our lips just before we begin to grumble and complain, if we shoot down that seemingly harmless negative thought as it germinates, we will find that there is much to rejoice about.
The men talked for hours on end. They spoke of their wives and families, their homes, their jobs, their involvement in the military service, where they had been on vacation. And every afternoon when the man in the bed next to the window could sit up, he would pass the time by describing to his roommate all the things he could see outside the window.
The man in the other bed would live for those one-hour periods where his world would be broadened and enlivened by all the activity and color of the outside world. The window overlooked a park with a lovely lake, the man had said. Ducks and swans played on the water while children sailed their model boats. Lovers walked arm in arm amid flowers of every color of the rainbow. Grand old trees graced the landscape, and a fine view of the city skyline could be seen in the distance. As the man by the window described all this in exquisite detail, the man on the other side of the room would close his eyes and imagine the picturesque scene.
One warm afternoon the man by the window described a parade passing by. Although the other man could not hear the band, he could see it in his mind's eye as the gentleman by the window portrayed it with descriptive words. Unexpectedly, an alien thought entered his head: Why should hehave all the pleasure of seeing everything while I never get to see anything? It didn't seem fair. As the thought fermented, the man felt ashamed at first. But as the days passed and he missed seeing more sights, his envy eroded into resentment and soon turned him sour. He began to brood and found himself unable to sleep. He should be by that window - and that thought now controlled his life.
Late one night, as he lay staring at the ceiling, the man by the window began to cough. He was choking on the fluid in his lungs. The other man watched in the dimly lit room as the struggling man by the window groped for the button to call for help. Listening from across the room, he never moved, never pushed his own button which would have brought the nurse running. In less than five minutes, the coughing and choking stopped, along with the sound of breathing. Now, there was only silence--deathly silence.
The following morning, the day nurse arrived to bring water for their baths. When she found the lifeless body of the man by the window, she was saddened and called the hospital attendant to take it away--no words, no fuss. As soon as it seemed appropriate, the man asked if he could be moved next to the window. The nurse was happy to make the switch and after making sure he was comfortable, she left him alone.
Slowly, painfully, he propped himself up on one elbow to take his first look. Finally, he would have the joy of seeing it all himself. He strained to slowly turn to look out the window beside the bed. It faced a blank wall.
Moral of the story:
The pursuit of happiness is a matter of choice...it is a positive attitude we consciously choose to express. It is not a gift that gets delivered to our doorstep each morning, nor does it come through the window. And I am certain that our circumstances are just a small part of what makes us joyful. If we wait for them to get just right, we will never find lasting joy.
The pursuit of happiness is an inward journey. Our minds are like programs, awaiting the code that will determine behaviors; like bank vaults awaiting our deposits. If we regularly deposit positive, encouraging, and uplifting thoughts, if we continue to bite our lips just before we begin to grumble and complain, if we shoot down that seemingly harmless negative thought as it germinates, we will find that there is much to rejoice about.
Tuesday, April 13, 2010
Our greatest glory is not in never falling but in rising every time we fall
Lord, are you trying to tell me something?
For...
Failure does not mean I'm a failure;
It does mean I have not yet succeeded.
Failure does not mean I have accomplished nothing;
It does mean I have learned something.
Failure does not mean I have been a fool;
It does mean I had enough faith to experiment.
Failure does not mean I have disgraced;
It does mean I have dared to try.
Failure does not mean I don't have it;
It does mean I have something to do in a different way.
Failure does not mean I am inferior;
It does mean I am not perfect.
Failure does not mean I have wasted my life;
It does mean that I have an excuse to start over.
Failure does not mean that I should give up;
It does mean that I should try harder.
Failure does not mean that I will never make it;
It does mean that I need more practice.
Failure does not mean that you have abandoned me;
It does mean that you must have a better idea!!!
For...
Failure does not mean I'm a failure;
It does mean I have not yet succeeded.
Failure does not mean I have accomplished nothing;
It does mean I have learned something.
Failure does not mean I have been a fool;
It does mean I had enough faith to experiment.
Failure does not mean I have disgraced;
It does mean I have dared to try.
Failure does not mean I don't have it;
It does mean I have something to do in a different way.
Failure does not mean I am inferior;
It does mean I am not perfect.
Failure does not mean I have wasted my life;
It does mean that I have an excuse to start over.
Failure does not mean that I should give up;
It does mean that I should try harder.
Failure does not mean that I will never make it;
It does mean that I need more practice.
Failure does not mean that you have abandoned me;
It does mean that you must have a better idea!!!
Monday, April 12, 2010
QUES AIIMS NOV 2009)MOST COMMON CAUSE OF NEONATAL SEPSIS IN INDIA
aiims nov 2009) which of the following is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis in india?
a)group B streptococcus
b)eschirichia coli
c)pseudomonas
d)listeria
answer=before answering remember the top three most common causes of neonatal sepsis in india
1)klebsiella
2)staphylococcus aureus
3)pseudomonas
according to this order you have to answer the ques because options may be changed in upcoming exams,,,but here in our ques answer = pseudomonas
reference= here is a link to AIIMS protocol on neonatal sepsis
http://www.newbornwhocc.org/clinical_protocols.htm
also read this journal by indian academy of pediatrics
http://medind.nic.in/icb/t08/i3/icbt08i3p261.pdf
both these clearly write the most common organisms to be klebsiella>staph.aureus>pseudomonas
a)group B streptococcus
b)eschirichia coli
c)pseudomonas
d)listeria
answer=before answering remember the top three most common causes of neonatal sepsis in india
1)klebsiella
2)staphylococcus aureus
3)pseudomonas
according to this order you have to answer the ques because options may be changed in upcoming exams,,,but here in our ques answer = pseudomonas
reference= here is a link to AIIMS protocol on neonatal sepsis
http://www.newbornwhocc.org/clinical_protocols.htm
also read this journal by indian academy of pediatrics
http://medind.nic.in/icb/t08/i3/icbt08i3p261.pdf
both these clearly write the most common organisms to be klebsiella>staph.aureus>pseudomonas
most common cause of meningitis among different age groups
most common cause of meningitis in india
a) till 2 months---------------------------gram negative bacteria esp.klebsiella,e.coli
b)2 months -3 years----------------------H.influenzae type B
c)3 years-20 years-------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
d)>20 years----------------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
most common cause of meningitis in WESTERN WORLD(DEVELOPED COUNTRIES)
a)till 2 months----------------------------group B streptococci
b))2 months -3 years------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
c)3 years-20 years---------------------neisseria meningitidis
d)>20 years-------------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
i have written both india and western trends here to make u realise why mudit khanna and many other guides differ in their own answers on this ques from one paper to another.
this is because they use references from books like nelson,which are based on data collected in western world.
e.g in wetern world vaccination against H.influenzae is routinely done that is why H.influenzae meningitis is not common there
but in developing world (in our country also) even routine vaccination like OPV and BCG donot have 100 %coverage..forget about H.INFLUENZAE
so thats why among 2 months -3 years h.influenzae is most common cause in india
while in west,,,it is rare.
i have given both trends, but to solve mcqs u have to learn ONLY THE TREND IN INDIA
a) till 2 months---------------------------gram negative bacteria esp.klebsiella,e.coli
b)2 months -3 years----------------------H.influenzae type B
c)3 years-20 years-------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
d)>20 years----------------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
most common cause of meningitis in WESTERN WORLD(DEVELOPED COUNTRIES)
a)till 2 months----------------------------group B streptococci
b))2 months -3 years------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
c)3 years-20 years---------------------neisseria meningitidis
d)>20 years-------------------------------streptococcus pneumoniae
i have written both india and western trends here to make u realise why mudit khanna and many other guides differ in their own answers on this ques from one paper to another.
this is because they use references from books like nelson,which are based on data collected in western world.
e.g in wetern world vaccination against H.influenzae is routinely done that is why H.influenzae meningitis is not common there
but in developing world (in our country also) even routine vaccination like OPV and BCG donot have 100 %coverage..forget about H.INFLUENZAE
so thats why among 2 months -3 years h.influenzae is most common cause in india
while in west,,,it is rare.
i have given both trends, but to solve mcqs u have to learn ONLY THE TREND IN INDIA
Saturday, April 10, 2010
MOCK TEST 5
hello guys....the test contains 30 questions
time limit = 25 min
it contains maximum repeats
if you get >25 correct = superb!PG seat is waiting for u..just keep going
20-25 = great performance....keep revising and give maximum number of mocks
15-20 =good
10-15=average
<10> = not good,but dont worry,,,you still can fight back
work hard to reach the top.NOTHING'S IMPOSSIBLE!!!
ques 1)while doing thoracocentesis,it is advisable to introduce needle along :
a)upper border of the rib
b)lower border of the rib
c)in the center of intercostal space
d)in anterior part of intercostal space
ques 2)all are true about nitric oxide except?
a)acts through cAMP
b)helps to regulate vascular tone
c)important role in penile erection
d)present in low concentration in cigarette smokers
ques 3)For PCR which of the following is not required?
a)Taq polymerase
b)d-NTP
c)primer
d)radiolabelled DNA probe
ques 4)Section 377 deals with:-
a) unnatural offences
b) rape
c) incest
d) adultery
ques 5)specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
a)true positives
b)true negatives
c)false positives
d)false negatives
ques 6)nitrates can be used in all except?
a)CHF
b)oesophageal spasm
c)cyanide poisoning
d)renal colic
ques 7)gene for prion protein is present on
a)chromosome 17
b)chromosome 18
c)chromosome 19
d)chromosome 20
ques 8)all of the following vibrio species are halophilic except?
a)V.cholerae
b)V.parahaemolyticus
c)V.alginolyticus
d)V.fluvialis
ques 9)cluster headache is characterized by,except
a)affects predominantly females
b)unilateral headache
c)onset typically in 20-50 years of life
d)associated with conjunctival congestion.
ques 10)non progressive contraction of oesophagus are
a)primary
b)secondary
c)tertiary
d)quaternary
ques 11)most common organism causing infectious oesophagitis?
a)HPV
b)candida
c)e.coli
d)streptococcus viridans
ques 12)nugent score is used to diagnose
a)multiple sclerosis
b)severity of abdominal trauma
c)subarachnoid haemorrhage
d)bacterial vaginosis
ques 13)most common site of bony metastasis in carcinoma prostate?
a)pelvis
b)proximal femur
c)lumbar spine
d)thoracic spine
ques 14)persistence of MORO's reflex beyond _____ months is suggestive of cerebral dysfunction?
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
ques 15)all are features of horner's syndrome except?
a)miosis
b)anhydrosis
c)ptosis
d)exophthalmos
ques 16)in right middle ear pathology weber's test will be
a)normal
b)centralised
c)lateralised to right side
d)lateralised to left side
ques 17)pityriasis rosea,false is
a)self limiting disorder
b)papulosquamous disorder
c)herald patch is first lesion to be seen,present in 80 % patients.
d)caused by dermatophytes
ques 18)pancuronium derivative with no vagolytic activity
a)pipecuronium
b)rocuronium
c)vecuronium
d)rapacuronium
ques 19)epiphyseal bone tumour
a)osteoclastoma
b)ewing's sarcoma
c)chondromyxoid fibroma
d)osteosarcoma
ques 20)the radiation tolerance of whole liver is
a)15 Gy
b)30 Gy
c)40 Gy
d)45 Gy
ques 21)endophthalmitis includes all except
a)vitreous
b)sclera
c)uvea
d)retina
ques 22)all are anti TNF-alpha drugs except?
a)tirofiban
b)infliximab
c)etarnecept
d)adalimumab
ques 23)which of the following is not true regarding bernard soulier syndrome?
a)ristocetin aggregation is abnormal.
b)aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
c)small platelets
d)thrombocytopenia
ques 24)which of the following is most commonly used in narcoanalysis?
a)atropine sulphate
b)scopolamine hydrobromide
c)opium compounds
d)thiopentone
ques 25)In lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma, M component , most commonly consists of
a)IgG
b)IgM
c)IgA
d)IgD
ques 26)deficiency of which of the following membrane proteins is most commonly involved in pathogenesis
of PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)
a)DAF
b)MIRL
c)c8 binding protein
d)all are equally involved
ques 27)all of the following antiepileptics act via prolongation of sodium channel inactivation, except?
a)phenytoin
b)phenobarbitone
c)topiramate
d)lamotrigine
ques 28)which of the following is not included in major jone's criteria?
a)pancarditis
b)chorea
c)arthritis
d)elevated ESR
ques 29)most common site of cholangiocarcinoma?
a)distal biliary duct
b)hilum
c)intrahepatic duct
d)multifocal
ques 30)sphincter of oddi consists of
a)2 sphincters
b)3 sphincters
c)4 sphincters
d)5 sphincters
please post your answers in the COMMENTS section below this post.
time limit = 25 min
it contains maximum repeats
if you get >25 correct = superb!PG seat is waiting for u..just keep going
20-25 = great performance....keep revising and give maximum number of mocks
15-20 =good
10-15=average
<10> = not good,but dont worry,,,you still can fight back
work hard to reach the top.NOTHING'S IMPOSSIBLE!!!
ques 1)while doing thoracocentesis,it is advisable to introduce needle along :
a)upper border of the rib
b)lower border of the rib
c)in the center of intercostal space
d)in anterior part of intercostal space
ques 2)all are true about nitric oxide except?
a)acts through cAMP
b)helps to regulate vascular tone
c)important role in penile erection
d)present in low concentration in cigarette smokers
ques 3)For PCR which of the following is not required?
a)Taq polymerase
b)d-NTP
c)primer
d)radiolabelled DNA probe
ques 4)Section 377 deals with:-
a) unnatural offences
b) rape
c) incest
d) adultery
ques 5)specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
a)true positives
b)true negatives
c)false positives
d)false negatives
ques 6)nitrates can be used in all except?
a)CHF
b)oesophageal spasm
c)cyanide poisoning
d)renal colic
ques 7)gene for prion protein is present on
a)chromosome 17
b)chromosome 18
c)chromosome 19
d)chromosome 20
ques 8)all of the following vibrio species are halophilic except?
a)V.cholerae
b)V.parahaemolyticus
c)V.alginolyticus
d)V.fluvialis
ques 9)cluster headache is characterized by,except
a)affects predominantly females
b)unilateral headache
c)onset typically in 20-50 years of life
d)associated with conjunctival congestion.
ques 10)non progressive contraction of oesophagus are
a)primary
b)secondary
c)tertiary
d)quaternary
ques 11)most common organism causing infectious oesophagitis?
a)HPV
b)candida
c)e.coli
d)streptococcus viridans
ques 12)nugent score is used to diagnose
a)multiple sclerosis
b)severity of abdominal trauma
c)subarachnoid haemorrhage
d)bacterial vaginosis
ques 13)most common site of bony metastasis in carcinoma prostate?
a)pelvis
b)proximal femur
c)lumbar spine
d)thoracic spine
ques 14)persistence of MORO's reflex beyond _____ months is suggestive of cerebral dysfunction?
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
ques 15)all are features of horner's syndrome except?
a)miosis
b)anhydrosis
c)ptosis
d)exophthalmos
ques 16)in right middle ear pathology weber's test will be
a)normal
b)centralised
c)lateralised to right side
d)lateralised to left side
ques 17)pityriasis rosea,false is
a)self limiting disorder
b)papulosquamous disorder
c)herald patch is first lesion to be seen,present in 80 % patients.
d)caused by dermatophytes
ques 18)pancuronium derivative with no vagolytic activity
a)pipecuronium
b)rocuronium
c)vecuronium
d)rapacuronium
ques 19)epiphyseal bone tumour
a)osteoclastoma
b)ewing's sarcoma
c)chondromyxoid fibroma
d)osteosarcoma
ques 20)the radiation tolerance of whole liver is
a)15 Gy
b)30 Gy
c)40 Gy
d)45 Gy
ques 21)endophthalmitis includes all except
a)vitreous
b)sclera
c)uvea
d)retina
ques 22)all are anti TNF-alpha drugs except?
a)tirofiban
b)infliximab
c)etarnecept
d)adalimumab
ques 23)which of the following is not true regarding bernard soulier syndrome?
a)ristocetin aggregation is abnormal.
b)aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
c)small platelets
d)thrombocytopenia
ques 24)which of the following is most commonly used in narcoanalysis?
a)atropine sulphate
b)scopolamine hydrobromide
c)opium compounds
d)thiopentone
ques 25)In lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma, M component , most commonly consists of
a)IgG
b)IgM
c)IgA
d)IgD
ques 26)deficiency of which of the following membrane proteins is most commonly involved in pathogenesis
of PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)
a)DAF
b)MIRL
c)c8 binding protein
d)all are equally involved
ques 27)all of the following antiepileptics act via prolongation of sodium channel inactivation, except?
a)phenytoin
b)phenobarbitone
c)topiramate
d)lamotrigine
ques 28)which of the following is not included in major jone's criteria?
a)pancarditis
b)chorea
c)arthritis
d)elevated ESR
ques 29)most common site of cholangiocarcinoma?
a)distal biliary duct
b)hilum
c)intrahepatic duct
d)multifocal
ques 30)sphincter of oddi consists of
a)2 sphincters
b)3 sphincters
c)4 sphincters
d)5 sphincters
please post your answers in the COMMENTS section below this post.
Friday, April 9, 2010
features of hallucinations
following are the features of hallucinations from FISH'S PSYCHIATRY and CAMPBELL'S PSYCHIATRY DICTIONARY
1)it is a perception in the absence of stimulus.
2)it is clearly delineated and as vivid as a true sense perception.
3)it is independent of the will of the observer.
4)it occurs in outer objective space (e.g. outside ears in case of auditory hallucination).
5) sensory organs may be involved in subtypes like reflex hallucination and functional hallucinations.
note: if it occurs in inner subjective space (e.g. inside the person's own head in case of auditory hallucinations)=>it is known as PSEUDOHALLUCINATION and in this sensory organs are not involved.
now lets see few questions
ques 1)All of the following are true about hallucinations except?
a)it is as vivid as sense perception.
b)it is independent of the will of the observer.
c)occurs in inner subjective space.
d)it occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus
this question came in may aiims 09 and the answer is C
ques 2)all are features of hallucinations except?
a)it is independent of will of observer
b)sensory organs are not involved.
c)it is as vivid as that in a true sense perception.
d)it occurs in absence of a perceptual stimulus.
this is ques from allindia 2003 ques no.298
and mudit khanna gives answer as C which is wrong ...correct answer is B since sensory organs may be involved.
for furthur reasoning ,,,,check comments....
1)it is a perception in the absence of stimulus.
2)it is clearly delineated and as vivid as a true sense perception.
3)it is independent of the will of the observer.
4)it occurs in outer objective space (e.g. outside ears in case of auditory hallucination).
5) sensory organs may be involved in subtypes like reflex hallucination and functional hallucinations.
note: if it occurs in inner subjective space (e.g. inside the person's own head in case of auditory hallucinations)=>it is known as PSEUDOHALLUCINATION and in this sensory organs are not involved.
now lets see few questions
ques 1)All of the following are true about hallucinations except?
a)it is as vivid as sense perception.
b)it is independent of the will of the observer.
c)occurs in inner subjective space.
d)it occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus
this question came in may aiims 09 and the answer is C
ques 2)all are features of hallucinations except?
a)it is independent of will of observer
b)sensory organs are not involved.
c)it is as vivid as that in a true sense perception.
d)it occurs in absence of a perceptual stimulus.
this is ques from allindia 2003 ques no.298
and mudit khanna gives answer as C which is wrong ...correct answer is B since sensory organs may be involved.
for furthur reasoning ,,,,check comments....
ANYWAY.....
People are often unreasonable, illogical and self centered;
Forgive them anyway.
If you are kind, people may accuse you of selfish, ulterior motives;
Be kind anyway.
If you are successful, you will win some false friends and some true enemies;
Succeed anyway.
If you are honest and frank, people may cheat you;
Be honest and frank anyway.
What you spend years building, someone could destroy overnight;
Build anyway.
If you find serenity and happiness, they may be jealous;
Be happy anyway.
The good you do today, people will often forget tomorrow;
Do good anyway.
Give the world the best you have, and it may never be enough;
Give the world the best you've got anyway.
You see, in the final analysis, it is between you and your God;
It was never between you and them anyway.
Forgive them anyway.
If you are kind, people may accuse you of selfish, ulterior motives;
Be kind anyway.
If you are successful, you will win some false friends and some true enemies;
Succeed anyway.
If you are honest and frank, people may cheat you;
Be honest and frank anyway.
What you spend years building, someone could destroy overnight;
Build anyway.
If you find serenity and happiness, they may be jealous;
Be happy anyway.
The good you do today, people will often forget tomorrow;
Do good anyway.
Give the world the best you have, and it may never be enough;
Give the world the best you've got anyway.
You see, in the final analysis, it is between you and your God;
It was never between you and them anyway.
few things on PNH....important topic aiims/allindia
PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)...some important facts
pathogenesis-----this is due to mutation in PIGA gene(phosphatidylinositol glycosylated A gene) =>causing deficiency of GPI(glycosylated phosphatidyl inositol) which binds certain protective proteins to
cell membranes of RBCs,platelets and WBCs,these protective proteins PROTECT THE CELLS (RBC/WBC/PLATELETS) FROM COMPLEMENT MEDIATED LYSIS
these protective proteins are 1)CD 59(also k/a MIRL=membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis) ; 2) CD55(also k/a decay accelerating factor) ; 3)C8 binding protein,etc............out of these,CD59 is the most important
so PIGA mutation => GPI deficiency => deficiency of CD59,CD55,etc =>leading to complement mediated lysis of RBCs,platelets and WBCs
MCQs on PNH features
1)LAP score is decreased
2)pancytopenia with hyper/hypo/normocellular bone marrow is seen
3)gold standard for diagnosis-flow cytometry
4)other tests used for diagnosis--HAM oxidase test,,,,,,sucrose hemolysis test....but these are not reliable
5)ECULIZUMAB----monoclonal antibody against complement protein C5.....used in treatment of PNH
pathogenesis-----this is due to mutation in PIGA gene(phosphatidylinositol glycosylated A gene) =>causing deficiency of GPI(glycosylated phosphatidyl inositol) which binds certain protective proteins to
cell membranes of RBCs,platelets and WBCs,these protective proteins PROTECT THE CELLS (RBC/WBC/PLATELETS) FROM COMPLEMENT MEDIATED LYSIS
these protective proteins are 1)CD 59(also k/a MIRL=membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis) ; 2) CD55(also k/a decay accelerating factor) ; 3)C8 binding protein,etc............out of these,CD59 is the most important
so PIGA mutation => GPI deficiency => deficiency of CD59,CD55,etc =>leading to complement mediated lysis of RBCs,platelets and WBCs
MCQs on PNH features
1)LAP score is decreased
2)pancytopenia with hyper/hypo/normocellular bone marrow is seen
3)gold standard for diagnosis-flow cytometry
4)other tests used for diagnosis--HAM oxidase test,,,,,,sucrose hemolysis test....but these are not reliable
5)ECULIZUMAB----monoclonal antibody against complement protein C5.....used in treatment of PNH
myasthenia gravis most sensitive test????
hey guys,,,if you see ques 185 allindia 2005 mudit khanna writes edrophonium test
which is wrong.
edrophonium test has low sensitivity and harrison writes that it is used infrequently to diagnose MG and is limited to situations when other investigations do not yield a conclusive diagnosis.
harrison writes that single fibre EMG is the confirmatory test but specificity is low.If you search for the most sensitive investigation for MG on google books and sites like wikipedia,,you will find its SINGLE FIBRE EMG which is most sensitive.
so please change the answer in allindia 2005 mudit khanna paper
i thank dr.varun agarwal who gathered the following material in support of all this:
reference no 1) http://neuromuscular.wustl.edu/mtime/mgdx.html
it writes few things against edrophonium test(also k/a tensilon test),,,just check out
Utility of Tensilon test
Only useful in patients with objective, preferably measurable, findings on physical examination
Rarely helpful in the diagnostic evaluation of equivocal cases of MG
Sensitivity for MG is relatively low (60%) compared to other diagnostic tests
and few things in favour of SFEMG from the same site
SFEMG is the most sensitive test for MG
Sensitivity: > 95% positive in generalized & ocular MG
reference no.2) - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myasthenia_gravis
read the lines from wikipedia:
''The "edrophonium test" is infrequently performed to identify MG; its application is limited to the situation when other investigations do not yield a conclusive diagnosis ...
Its single fiber electromyography, which is considered to be the most sensitive (although not the most specific) test for MG.''
i have got more material to prove the above written facts,,,you can safely mark as according to the following statements in the exam:
1) most sensitive investigation for MG = single fibre EMG
2)most specific investigation for MG = anti Ach receptor antibodies
please comment if you have doubts on this
which is wrong.
edrophonium test has low sensitivity and harrison writes that it is used infrequently to diagnose MG and is limited to situations when other investigations do not yield a conclusive diagnosis.
harrison writes that single fibre EMG is the confirmatory test but specificity is low.If you search for the most sensitive investigation for MG on google books and sites like wikipedia,,you will find its SINGLE FIBRE EMG which is most sensitive.
so please change the answer in allindia 2005 mudit khanna paper
i thank dr.varun agarwal who gathered the following material in support of all this:
reference no 1) http://neuromuscular.wustl.edu/mtime/mgdx.html
it writes few things against edrophonium test(also k/a tensilon test),,,just check out
Utility of Tensilon test
Only useful in patients with objective, preferably measurable, findings on physical examination
Rarely helpful in the diagnostic evaluation of equivocal cases of MG
Sensitivity for MG is relatively low (60%) compared to other diagnostic tests
and few things in favour of SFEMG from the same site
SFEMG is the most sensitive test for MG
Sensitivity: > 95% positive in generalized & ocular MG
reference no.2) - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Myasthenia_gravis
read the lines from wikipedia:
''The "edrophonium test" is infrequently performed to identify MG; its application is limited to the situation when other investigations do not yield a conclusive diagnosis ...
Its single fiber electromyography, which is considered to be the most sensitive (although not the most specific) test for MG.''
i have got more material to prove the above written facts,,,you can safely mark as according to the following statements in the exam:
1) most sensitive investigation for MG = single fibre EMG
2)most specific investigation for MG = anti Ach receptor antibodies
please comment if you have doubts on this
Thursday, April 8, 2010
few controversies....
ques 1) which is the drug of choice for seizures in pregnancy??? (allindia 2002)
a)sodium valproate
b)carbamazepine
c)phenobarbitone
d)phenytoin
this ques is one of the most controversial questions in aipge history with different sources giving different answers....here are few
1)mudit khanna = phenobarbitone
2)IAMS coaching =phenobarbitone
3)rxpg site = phenytoin
4)bhatia coaching = carbamazepine
5)pgi sources = carbamazepine
answer is CARBAMAZEPINE
here is the reference----- read the following lines from LAURENCE 9th EDITION PAGE 416
''with current information,carbamazepine seems to be the safest drug for use in pregnancy. Data on lamotrigine(more recently used) are increasing,but it has not been shown,to be strongly associated with malformations.''
QUES 2)which is the drug of choice for absence seizures?
a)sodium valproate
b)ethosuximide
we all know its ethosuximide....but these days some guides are saying otherwise,,even some coaching institutes say valproate,mainly because in harrison table for treatment of epilepsy,,valproate has been written over ethosuximide in the table....but nowhere in harrison it is mentioned that valproate is the drug of choice...if anybody finds this statement in any other book,,please update here...till then go with ethosuximide because i have got a standard text book ref for that...read on
page 387 katzung pharma 10th edition
''valproate is very effective against absence seizures.Although ethosuximide is the drug of choice when absence seizures occur alone,valproate is preferred when the patient has concomitant generalised tonic clonic attacks.The reason for preferring ethosuximide for uncomplicated absence seizures is valproate's idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity.''
so when asked DOC for absence seizures= ethosuximide
DOC for complicated/mixed/resistant absence seizures = valproate
a)sodium valproate
b)carbamazepine
c)phenobarbitone
d)phenytoin
this ques is one of the most controversial questions in aipge history with different sources giving different answers....here are few
1)mudit khanna = phenobarbitone
2)IAMS coaching =phenobarbitone
3)rxpg site = phenytoin
4)bhatia coaching = carbamazepine
5)pgi sources = carbamazepine
answer is CARBAMAZEPINE
here is the reference----- read the following lines from LAURENCE 9th EDITION PAGE 416
''with current information,carbamazepine seems to be the safest drug for use in pregnancy. Data on lamotrigine(more recently used) are increasing,but it has not been shown,to be strongly associated with malformations.''
QUES 2)which is the drug of choice for absence seizures?
a)sodium valproate
b)ethosuximide
we all know its ethosuximide....but these days some guides are saying otherwise,,even some coaching institutes say valproate,mainly because in harrison table for treatment of epilepsy,,valproate has been written over ethosuximide in the table....but nowhere in harrison it is mentioned that valproate is the drug of choice...if anybody finds this statement in any other book,,please update here...till then go with ethosuximide because i have got a standard text book ref for that...read on
page 387 katzung pharma 10th edition
''valproate is very effective against absence seizures.Although ethosuximide is the drug of choice when absence seizures occur alone,valproate is preferred when the patient has concomitant generalised tonic clonic attacks.The reason for preferring ethosuximide for uncomplicated absence seizures is valproate's idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity.''
so when asked DOC for absence seizures= ethosuximide
DOC for complicated/mixed/resistant absence seizures = valproate
most common
1)most common endocrinal manifestation of MEN-1 =hyperparathyroidism
2)most common neuroendocrine tumour in MEN-1=GASTRINOMA >INSULINOMA
3)most common enteropancreatic tumour in MEN-1= GASTRINOMA >INSULINOMA
4)most common pancreatic tumour in MEN-1=insulinoma(since gastrinomas are more commonly in duodenum)
5)most common location of insulinoma=equally in pancreatic head,body and tail
6)most common benign pancreatic ENDOCRINE tumour overall=insulinoma
7)most common MALIGNANT pancreatic ENDOCRINE tumour overall=gastrinoma(because insulinomas are mostly benign)
8)most common provocative test for diagnosis of gastrinoma=secretin stimulation test
9)most sensitive diagnostic test for gastrinoma= fasting gastrin levels
2)most common neuroendocrine tumour in MEN-1=GASTRINOMA >INSULINOMA
3)most common enteropancreatic tumour in MEN-1= GASTRINOMA >INSULINOMA
4)most common pancreatic tumour in MEN-1=insulinoma(since gastrinomas are more commonly in duodenum)
5)most common location of insulinoma=equally in pancreatic head,body and tail
6)most common benign pancreatic ENDOCRINE tumour overall=insulinoma
7)most common MALIGNANT pancreatic ENDOCRINE tumour overall=gastrinoma(because insulinomas are mostly benign)
8)most common provocative test for diagnosis of gastrinoma=secretin stimulation test
9)most sensitive diagnostic test for gastrinoma= fasting gastrin levels
Wednesday, April 7, 2010
mock test 4
spot mock......time limit=5 min
ques1)true in asthma
a)increased FRC and reduced RV
b)increased FRC and increased RV
c)reduced FRC and reduced RV
d)reduced FRC and increased RV
ques2)thiazides can cause
a)hypouricemia
b)hypolipidemia
c)impotence
d)hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
ques3)down's syndrome is most commonly associated with
a)maternal nondisjunction
b)mosaicism
c)robertsonian translocation
d)paternal nondisjunction
ques4)poor prognosis in AML is indicated by
a)inversion 16
b)translocation 15/17
c)normal cytogenecity
d)monosomy 7
ques 5)pollicization can be best described as
a)toe to thumb transfer
b)thumb reconstruction
c)finger shortening
d)amputation of thumb
ques1)true in asthma
a)increased FRC and reduced RV
b)increased FRC and increased RV
c)reduced FRC and reduced RV
d)reduced FRC and increased RV
ques2)thiazides can cause
a)hypouricemia
b)hypolipidemia
c)impotence
d)hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
ques3)down's syndrome is most commonly associated with
a)maternal nondisjunction
b)mosaicism
c)robertsonian translocation
d)paternal nondisjunction
ques4)poor prognosis in AML is indicated by
a)inversion 16
b)translocation 15/17
c)normal cytogenecity
d)monosomy 7
ques 5)pollicization can be best described as
a)toe to thumb transfer
b)thumb reconstruction
c)finger shortening
d)amputation of thumb
MOCK TEST 3
total ques = 10
difficulty level= average( all repeats)
time limit = 7 min
all questions important for coming aiims exam
ques1)which of the following is a marker of GIST?
a) CD117
b)CD34
c)smooth muscle actin
d)all of the above
ques 2)chances of progression to endometrial cancer in complex hyperplasia without atypia is
a)1%
b)3%
c)8%
d)29%
ques 3)cryoprecipitate contains all except?
a)factor 13
b)fibrinogen
c)vWB Factor
d)factor 8
e)factor 9
ques 4) which of the following congenital anomaly is most commonly seen in infants of diabetic mothers?
a)CVS anomalies
b)neural tube defects
c)git anomalies
d)TGA
ques 5)most common cause of vasculitis in children?
a)kawasaki disease
b)HSP
c)takayasu arteritis
d)temporal arteritis
ques 6) All of the following characteristics differentiate a typical cervical vertebrae from a thoracic vertebrae except
a)has a triangular vertebral canal
b)has foramen transversarium
c)superior articular facet is directed backwards and upwards
d)has a small vertebral body
ques 7)cherry red spot is seen in all of the following conditions except
a)GM1 gangliosidosis
b)niemann pick disease
c)krabbe's disease
d)multiple sulphatase deficiency
ques8)all are vitamin k dependent clotting factors except?
a)fibrinogen
b)prothrombin
c)factor 7
d)factor 10
ques 9)most common cause of death in crohn's disease?
a)sepsis
b)malignancy
c)gi bleeding
d)none of these
ques10)rain drop pigmentation of palms and soles is seen with which poisoning?
a)arsenic
b)mercury
c)thallium
d)both a and b
post your answers in the comments section below this post
once you attempt it i will send the answers
difficulty level= average( all repeats)
time limit = 7 min
all questions important for coming aiims exam
ques1)which of the following is a marker of GIST?
a) CD117
b)CD34
c)smooth muscle actin
d)all of the above
ques 2)chances of progression to endometrial cancer in complex hyperplasia without atypia is
a)1%
b)3%
c)8%
d)29%
ques 3)cryoprecipitate contains all except?
a)factor 13
b)fibrinogen
c)vWB Factor
d)factor 8
e)factor 9
ques 4) which of the following congenital anomaly is most commonly seen in infants of diabetic mothers?
a)CVS anomalies
b)neural tube defects
c)git anomalies
d)TGA
ques 5)most common cause of vasculitis in children?
a)kawasaki disease
b)HSP
c)takayasu arteritis
d)temporal arteritis
ques 6) All of the following characteristics differentiate a typical cervical vertebrae from a thoracic vertebrae except
a)has a triangular vertebral canal
b)has foramen transversarium
c)superior articular facet is directed backwards and upwards
d)has a small vertebral body
ques 7)cherry red spot is seen in all of the following conditions except
a)GM1 gangliosidosis
b)niemann pick disease
c)krabbe's disease
d)multiple sulphatase deficiency
ques8)all are vitamin k dependent clotting factors except?
a)fibrinogen
b)prothrombin
c)factor 7
d)factor 10
ques 9)most common cause of death in crohn's disease?
a)sepsis
b)malignancy
c)gi bleeding
d)none of these
ques10)rain drop pigmentation of palms and soles is seen with which poisoning?
a)arsenic
b)mercury
c)thallium
d)both a and b
post your answers in the comments section below this post
once you attempt it i will send the answers
drugs used in alcohalic rehabilitation (MAY AIIMS 2009)
Following drugs are used in rehabilitation of alcohal dependence patients :
mnemonic= ''Say No To DARO''
Say - SSRIs
No - naltrexone,nalmefene
To - topiramate
D - disulfiram
A - acamprosate
R - ramonibant (its a cannabinol receptor antagonist)
O - ondansetron
this was asked in may aiims 2009
mnemonic= ''Say No To DARO''
Say - SSRIs
No - naltrexone,nalmefene
To - topiramate
D - disulfiram
A - acamprosate
R - ramonibant (its a cannabinol receptor antagonist)
O - ondansetron
this was asked in may aiims 2009
most common congenital anomaly in baby of diabetic mother
1)most common CONGENITAL MALFORMATION in the baby of diabetic mother = CVS malformations > CNS malformations.
but this was organ system wise,,,if you ask lesion wise then
2)most common lesion is = neural tube defects > transposition of great vessels.
3)most specific lesion is = caudal regression syndrome (sacral agenesis)
solve the following questions based on this info and the concept will be clear.
ques1)which is the most common congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)CVS malformations
d)GI malformations
ques 2)which is the most common congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)transposition of great vessels
d)GI malformations
ques 3)which is the most specific congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)transposition of great vessels
d)GI malformations
To check the answers ...see comments below this post
but this was organ system wise,,,if you ask lesion wise then
2)most common lesion is = neural tube defects > transposition of great vessels.
3)most specific lesion is = caudal regression syndrome (sacral agenesis)
solve the following questions based on this info and the concept will be clear.
ques1)which is the most common congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)CVS malformations
d)GI malformations
ques 2)which is the most common congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)transposition of great vessels
d)GI malformations
ques 3)which is the most specific congenital malformation in a baby of diabetic mother?
a)neural tube defects
b)sacral agenesis
c)transposition of great vessels
d)GI malformations
To check the answers ...see comments below this post
2 controversial questions of AIPGE 2010 on readers' request
2 controversial questions of OBG that came in aipge 2010
ques 1) drug of choice for intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy
a)cholestyramine
b)ursodiol
c)steroids
d)antihistaminics
ques 2)most useful investigation for VVF
a)3 swab test
b)cystoscopy
c)urine culture
d)IVP
answer of ques 1) ursodiol
ques 2) cystoscopy
answers have been verified by HOD OBG pgi chandigarh....
ques 1) drug of choice for intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy
a)cholestyramine
b)ursodiol
c)steroids
d)antihistaminics
ques 2)most useful investigation for VVF
a)3 swab test
b)cystoscopy
c)urine culture
d)IVP
answer of ques 1) ursodiol
ques 2) cystoscopy
answers have been verified by HOD OBG pgi chandigarh....
MITRAL STENOSIS X-RAY FINDINGS (HOT TOPIC PGI)
1) Backward displacement of oesophagus by enlarged left atrium==== earliest finding (aipge08).
2)straightening of left heart border.
3)dalatation of UPPER lobe pulmonary veins (k/a inverted moustache sign).
4)prominence of main pulmonary arteries.
5)kerley B lines ( these lines denote interstitial oedema)
6)lifting of left bronchus=> splaying of carina
7)double atrial shadows.
2)straightening of left heart border.
3)dalatation of UPPER lobe pulmonary veins (k/a inverted moustache sign).
4)prominence of main pulmonary arteries.
5)kerley B lines ( these lines denote interstitial oedema)
6)lifting of left bronchus=> splaying of carina
7)double atrial shadows.
high yielding facts from nov AIIMS 09
all these were asked as MCQs in nov 2009 aiims
so have a very high chance of repeat this year
remember all these points
1) most common cause of neonatal sepsis in india = klebsiella > staphylococcus aureus > pseudomonas > e.coli.
2)cranial nerve ,which on stimulation ,elevates mood = vagus nerve.
3)most useful investigation for diagnosis for ectopic pregnancy = transvaginal USG.
4)tocolytic of choice in heart disease = atosiban.
5)best time for surgery of orchidopexy = 6-12 months.
6)best treatment for desmoid tumour = wide excision followed by radiotherapy.
7)full thickness graft is not taken from axilla.
8)in hyperkalemia without ECG changes,no need of giving calcium gluconate in treatment.
9)type of anaemia in intestinal tuberculosis = megaloblastic anaemia.
10)cryoprecipitate transfusion does not require ABO cross matching.
11)most sensitive investigation for myasthenia gravis = single fibre EMG.
12)most common cause of Subarachnoid haemorrhage = HEAD TRAUMA >aneurysmal rupture.
13)most common progestin used for emergency contraception = levonorgesterol.
14)OPV is a live attenuated vaccine.
15)thinnest part of sclera is behind the insertion of rectus muscle.
so have a very high chance of repeat this year
remember all these points
1) most common cause of neonatal sepsis in india = klebsiella > staphylococcus aureus > pseudomonas > e.coli.
2)cranial nerve ,which on stimulation ,elevates mood = vagus nerve.
3)most useful investigation for diagnosis for ectopic pregnancy = transvaginal USG.
4)tocolytic of choice in heart disease = atosiban.
5)best time for surgery of orchidopexy = 6-12 months.
6)best treatment for desmoid tumour = wide excision followed by radiotherapy.
7)full thickness graft is not taken from axilla.
8)in hyperkalemia without ECG changes,no need of giving calcium gluconate in treatment.
9)type of anaemia in intestinal tuberculosis = megaloblastic anaemia.
10)cryoprecipitate transfusion does not require ABO cross matching.
11)most sensitive investigation for myasthenia gravis = single fibre EMG.
12)most common cause of Subarachnoid haemorrhage = HEAD TRAUMA >aneurysmal rupture.
13)most common progestin used for emergency contraception = levonorgesterol.
14)OPV is a live attenuated vaccine.
15)thinnest part of sclera is behind the insertion of rectus muscle.
multiple sclerosis....all MCQs
MCQs on multiple sclerosis
-disease of WHITE MATTER
-most common presentation is OPTIC NEURITIS
-investigation of choice is MRI
-CSF exam-OLIGOCLONAL BANDS SEEN
-extrapyramidal symptoms NOT seen
-DOES NOT cause diabetes inspidus
-CAUSES impotence
-IT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
-new drugs used:GLATIRAMER,NATALIZUMAB,MITOXANTRONE
-interferon used in treatment is BETA INTERFERON
-disease of WHITE MATTER
-most common presentation is OPTIC NEURITIS
-investigation of choice is MRI
-CSF exam-OLIGOCLONAL BANDS SEEN
-extrapyramidal symptoms NOT seen
-DOES NOT cause diabetes inspidus
-CAUSES impotence
-IT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia
-new drugs used:GLATIRAMER,NATALIZUMAB,MITOXANTRONE
-interferon used in treatment is BETA INTERFERON
FIGHT ONE MORE ROUND.....
Fight one more round.
When your arms are so tired that you can hardly lift your hands to come on guard, fight one more round.
When your nose is bleeding and your eyes are black and you are so tired that you wish your opponent would crack you one on the jaw and put you to sleep,
fight one more round
remember that the man who always fights one more round is never whipped
When your arms are so tired that you can hardly lift your hands to come on guard, fight one more round.
When your nose is bleeding and your eyes are black and you are so tired that you wish your opponent would crack you one on the jaw and put you to sleep,
fight one more round
remember that the man who always fights one more round is never whipped
Tuesday, April 6, 2010
ONLY...................
1) only hepatitis virus which is a DNA virus = hepatitis B virus (aiims )
2)only tetracycline that is not nephrotoxic = doxicycline (allindia 2008)
3)only immunoglobulin that is heat labile = IgE (allindia mcq)
4)only circulation that does not have thrombomodulin expressed over its surface= cerebral circulation (aiims mcq)
5)only muscle of larynx not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve = cricothyroid ( which is supplied by external branch of superior laryngeal nerve) (allindia mcq)
6)only part of penis that does not drain into superficial inguinal lympnodes = glans penis , which drains into deep inguinal lymhnodes (allindia 2007)
7)only serotype of neisseria against which vaccine has not been developed = type B (aiims 04)
8)only muscles in the body which are not derived from mesoderm = muscles of iris (dilator and sphincter pupillae),which are derived from ectoderm. (aiims)
9)only abductor muscle of larynx = posterior cricoarytenoid (pgi)
10)only hepatitis virus that can be cultured = hepatitis A (aiims mcq)
2)only tetracycline that is not nephrotoxic = doxicycline (allindia 2008)
3)only immunoglobulin that is heat labile = IgE (allindia mcq)
4)only circulation that does not have thrombomodulin expressed over its surface= cerebral circulation (aiims mcq)
5)only muscle of larynx not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve = cricothyroid ( which is supplied by external branch of superior laryngeal nerve) (allindia mcq)
6)only part of penis that does not drain into superficial inguinal lympnodes = glans penis , which drains into deep inguinal lymhnodes (allindia 2007)
7)only serotype of neisseria against which vaccine has not been developed = type B (aiims 04)
8)only muscles in the body which are not derived from mesoderm = muscles of iris (dilator and sphincter pupillae),which are derived from ectoderm. (aiims)
9)only abductor muscle of larynx = posterior cricoarytenoid (pgi)
10)only hepatitis virus that can be cultured = hepatitis A (aiims mcq)
MENTOS khayo....DIMAAG ki batti jalayo !!!
Chewing gum, a pet hate of lecturers, could improve your chances of exam success, according to a study at Northumbria University. Dr Andrew Scholey and Lucy Wilkinson have found that chewing gum while performing memory tests increases long and short term memory by up to 35%.
Computerised memory tests measured participants' attention span, response rates, and both long and short term memory while they were either chewing gum, miming the action, or doing nothing.
Those who chewed gum outperformed the non-chewers and mimers, most notably during tests to recall word lists. Immediately after hearing the list gum chewers remembered eight or nine words, on average; the other participants remembered only six or seven.
Long term memory was also better in gum chewers, who could recall an average of seven words after 25 minutes compared to the non-chewers' five.
Scholey said, "We found a very clear pattern of improved memory when gum was chewed. We think it is the effect of chewing which causes this, rather than anything in the gum itself."
So far, no explanation has been found for the increase in "brain power," but Scholey believes that there are two possible explanations.
The results of the study showed that the heart rate of gum chewers increased by five or six beats per minute. According to Scholey, the increase in heart rate increases blood flow and, therefore, oxygen and glucose delivery to the brain
SO DONT FORGET TO CARRY A CENTER FRESH IN EXAM HALL!!!!!!!
Monday, April 5, 2010
MOCK TEST 2
ANSWER THESE IN TRUE FALSE
all these have been asked as MCQs in allindia/aiims/pgi
if you score > 15/20= keep going,,,u r gonna clear pg entrance soon.
10-15= average preparation=need to revise again and again.
<10= need to work really hard=start with mudit kanna and amit ashish
1)Posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior dislocation of tibia on femur
2)hormonal replacement therapy increases risk of carcinoma endometrium
3)glucokinase is found only in liver while hexokinase in all tissues
4)mosquito is a definitive host in filariasis
5)hunterian ligature operation is done for AV fistula
6)ossified posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly involves cervical spine
7)HIRANO BODIES seen in MYOCLONIC EPILEPSY
8)LAFORA BODIES seen in ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE
9)most radioresistant phase of cell cycle is S-PHASE
10)P value < 005=" significant.">
11)TRAP is a bone resorption marker.
12)number of FRUs per district is 4-6
13)swine flu =H5N1
14)in fibrolamellar variant of hepatocellular carcinoma,AFP levels >1000
15)ethambutol causes blue vision
16)hounsefield units for water =0
17)kussmaul’s sign is positive in 75 % cases of cardiac tamponade
18)commonest cause of ASOM in children is H.influenzae
19)subepithelial humps are seen in PSAGN
20)mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
ANSWERS
1)Posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior dislocation of tibia on femur----true allindia 2007
2)hormonal replacement therapy increases risk of carcinoma endometrium-------false
may aiims 05 ques 87
3)glucokinase is found only in liver while hexokinase in all tissues----true
4)mosquito is a definitive host in filariasis----false(it is a definitive host in malaria but not in filariasis) aiims mcq
5)hunterian ligature operation is done for AV fistula------false(it is done for aneurysms) aiims08
6)ossified posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly involves cervical spine(true)-----allindia2009
7)HIRANO BODIES seen in MYOCLONIC EPILEPSY-----false(seen in alzheimers)
8)LAFORA BODIES seen in ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE-----false(seen in myoclonic epilepsy)
9)most radioresistant phase of cell cycle is S-PHASE----true(also remember most radiosensitive is G2M>G2>M) allindia 08
10)P value < 005 =" significant" 05 =" significant).
11)TRAP is a bone resorption marker.........true (aiims may08)
12)number of FRUs per district is 4-6........true (aiims mcq)
13)swine flu =H5N1 .....false(it is H1N1) allindia 2008
14)in fibrolamellar variant of hepatocellular carcinoma,AFP levels >1000 ......false(AFP not raised in fibrolamellar variant) aiims mcq
15)ethambutol causes blue vision.....true(it causes red green colour blindness=leading to blue vision) pgi mcq
16)hounsefield units for water =0 ....true (aiims 08)
17)kussmaul’s sign is positive in 75 % cases of cardiac tamponade....false(kussmaul's sign is absent in tamponade) allindia06
18)commonest cause of ASOM in children is H.influenzae .....false (its streptococcus pneumoniae)
19)subepithelial humps are seen in PSAGN.....true (upsc mcq)
20)mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility.....false(it rarely causes infertility) aiims mcq
all these have been asked as MCQs in allindia/aiims/pgi
if you score > 15/20= keep going,,,u r gonna clear pg entrance soon.
10-15= average preparation=need to revise again and again.
<10= need to work really hard=start with mudit kanna and amit ashish
1)Posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior dislocation of tibia on femur
2)hormonal replacement therapy increases risk of carcinoma endometrium
3)glucokinase is found only in liver while hexokinase in all tissues
4)mosquito is a definitive host in filariasis
5)hunterian ligature operation is done for AV fistula
6)ossified posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly involves cervical spine
7)HIRANO BODIES seen in MYOCLONIC EPILEPSY
8)LAFORA BODIES seen in ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE
9)most radioresistant phase of cell cycle is S-PHASE
10)P value < 005=" significant.">
11)TRAP is a bone resorption marker.
12)number of FRUs per district is 4-6
13)swine flu =H5N1
14)in fibrolamellar variant of hepatocellular carcinoma,AFP levels >1000
15)ethambutol causes blue vision
16)hounsefield units for water =0
17)kussmaul’s sign is positive in 75 % cases of cardiac tamponade
18)commonest cause of ASOM in children is H.influenzae
19)subepithelial humps are seen in PSAGN
20)mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
ANSWERS
1)Posterior cruciate ligament prevents posterior dislocation of tibia on femur----true allindia 2007
2)hormonal replacement therapy increases risk of carcinoma endometrium-------false
may aiims 05 ques 87
3)glucokinase is found only in liver while hexokinase in all tissues----true
4)mosquito is a definitive host in filariasis----false(it is a definitive host in malaria but not in filariasis) aiims mcq
5)hunterian ligature operation is done for AV fistula------false(it is done for aneurysms) aiims08
6)ossified posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly involves cervical spine(true)-----allindia2009
7)HIRANO BODIES seen in MYOCLONIC EPILEPSY-----false(seen in alzheimers)
8)LAFORA BODIES seen in ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE-----false(seen in myoclonic epilepsy)
9)most radioresistant phase of cell cycle is S-PHASE----true(also remember most radiosensitive is G2M>G2>M) allindia 08
10)P value < 005 =" significant" 05 =" significant).
11)TRAP is a bone resorption marker.........true (aiims may08)
12)number of FRUs per district is 4-6........true (aiims mcq)
13)swine flu =H5N1 .....false(it is H1N1) allindia 2008
14)in fibrolamellar variant of hepatocellular carcinoma,AFP levels >1000 ......false(AFP not raised in fibrolamellar variant) aiims mcq
15)ethambutol causes blue vision.....true(it causes red green colour blindness=leading to blue vision) pgi mcq
16)hounsefield units for water =0 ....true (aiims 08)
17)kussmaul’s sign is positive in 75 % cases of cardiac tamponade....false(kussmaul's sign is absent in tamponade) allindia06
18)commonest cause of ASOM in children is H.influenzae .....false (its streptococcus pneumoniae)
19)subepithelial humps are seen in PSAGN.....true (upsc mcq)
20)mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility.....false(it rarely causes infertility) aiims mcq
BIOCHEMICAL MARKERS OF BONE METABOLISM
This is an extremely important topic.
remember this chart. reference=table 333-5 page 2273 16th edi harrison
A)BONE FORMATION MARKERS
1)serum bone specific alkaline phosphatase.
2)serum osteocalcin.
3)serum propeptide of type 1 procollagen.
B)BONE RESORPTION MARKERS
1)urine and serum crosslinked N-telopeptide.
2)urine and serum crosslinked C-telopeptide.
3)urine total free deoxypyridinoline.
4)urine hydroxyproline.
5)serum TRAP(tartrate resistant acid phosphatase).
6)serum bone sialoprotein.
7)urine hydroxylysine glycosides.
remember this chart. reference=table 333-5 page 2273 16th edi harrison
A)BONE FORMATION MARKERS
1)serum bone specific alkaline phosphatase.
2)serum osteocalcin.
3)serum propeptide of type 1 procollagen.
B)BONE RESORPTION MARKERS
1)urine and serum crosslinked N-telopeptide.
2)urine and serum crosslinked C-telopeptide.
3)urine total free deoxypyridinoline.
4)urine hydroxyproline.
5)serum TRAP(tartrate resistant acid phosphatase).
6)serum bone sialoprotein.
7)urine hydroxylysine glycosides.
IF U R GOING THROUGH HELL,KEEP GOING...BECAUSE ITS THE BEST WAY U R GONNA GET OUT OF IT...!!!
When things go wrong, as they sometimes will,
When the road you're trudging seems all uphill,
When the funds are low and the debts are high,
And you want to smile, but you have to sigh,
When care is pressing you down a bit-
Rest if you must, but don't you quit.
Life is queer with its twists and turns,
As every one of us sometimes learns,
And many a fellow turns about
When he might have won had he stuck it out.
Don't give up though the pace seems slow -
You may succeed with another blow.
Often the goal is nearer than
It seems to a faint and faltering man;
Often the struggler has given up
Whe he might have captured the victor's cup;
And he learned too late when the night came down,
How close he was to the golden crown.
Success is failure turned inside out -
The silver tint in the clouds of doubt,
And you never can tell how close you are,
It might be near when it seems afar;
So stick to the fight when you're hardest hit -
It's when things seem worst that you must not quit.
Sunday, April 4, 2010
CHROMOSOMES
chromosome number-----associated disease/gene.
chromosome 1
NPHS-2 gene(podocin).
Rh antigen.
chromosome 2 .....
chromosome 3
von hipple landau syndrome.
renal cell carcinoma(clear cell type).
chromosome 4
huntington chorea.
parkinsonism.
chromosome 5
APC gene(adenomatous polyposis colon).
turcot's syndrome.
criduchat syndrome.
chromosome 6
major histocompatibility complex [on short arm]. (nov aiims08)
haemchromatosis (also on short arm).
chromosome 7
cystic fibrosis ( 7q13) ....may aiims 09
william syndrome
chromosome 8
osteopetrosis
chromosome 9
tuberous sclerosis type 1
polycyathemia vera(JAK-2 mutation)
chromosome 10
RET protooncogene
chromosome 11
wilms tumour( WAGR syndrome,,,beckwid wiedman 11p15 ,,,,,denysdrash syndrome 11p13)
sickle cell anaemia
beta thalassemia
MEN-1 gene(wermer's syndrome)
ataxia telengiectesia
chromosome 12
vWB factor deficiency
noonan's syndrome
chromosome 13
BRCA-2 gene (aiims mcq)
patau's syndrome
wilson disease
retinoblastoma ( 13q14)----allindia mcq
chromosome 14
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
chromosome 15
marfan's syndrome(fibrillin gene)
bloom syndrome
gene for beta 2 microglobulin of HLA-1
chromosome 16
tuberous sclerosis-2 gene
alpha thalassemia
polycystic kidney disease
chromosome 17
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS-1 gene (mcq)
p53 on short arm ( mcq)
BRCA-1 (mcq)
chromosome 18
edward's syndrome
chromosome 19
NPHS-1( nephrin)
alpha actinin-4-deficincy FSGS
myotonic dystrophy
LDL receptor gene (mcq)
chromosome 20
PRION PROTEIN (v.important)
chromosome 21
down syndrome
folic acid transporter (aiims mcq)
alzheimer's disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
chromosome 22
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS -2 gene
cat's eye syndrome(partial trisomy 22)
chromosome 1
NPHS-2 gene(podocin).
Rh antigen.
chromosome 2 .....
chromosome 3
von hipple landau syndrome.
renal cell carcinoma(clear cell type).
chromosome 4
huntington chorea.
parkinsonism.
chromosome 5
APC gene(adenomatous polyposis colon).
turcot's syndrome.
criduchat syndrome.
chromosome 6
major histocompatibility complex [on short arm]. (nov aiims08)
haemchromatosis (also on short arm).
chromosome 7
cystic fibrosis ( 7q13) ....may aiims 09
william syndrome
chromosome 8
osteopetrosis
chromosome 9
tuberous sclerosis type 1
polycyathemia vera(JAK-2 mutation)
chromosome 10
RET protooncogene
chromosome 11
wilms tumour( WAGR syndrome,,,beckwid wiedman 11p15 ,,,,,denysdrash syndrome 11p13)
sickle cell anaemia
beta thalassemia
MEN-1 gene(wermer's syndrome)
ataxia telengiectesia
chromosome 12
vWB factor deficiency
noonan's syndrome
chromosome 13
BRCA-2 gene (aiims mcq)
patau's syndrome
wilson disease
retinoblastoma ( 13q14)----allindia mcq
chromosome 14
alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
chromosome 15
marfan's syndrome(fibrillin gene)
bloom syndrome
gene for beta 2 microglobulin of HLA-1
chromosome 16
tuberous sclerosis-2 gene
alpha thalassemia
polycystic kidney disease
chromosome 17
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS-1 gene (mcq)
p53 on short arm ( mcq)
BRCA-1 (mcq)
chromosome 18
edward's syndrome
chromosome 19
NPHS-1( nephrin)
alpha actinin-4-deficincy FSGS
myotonic dystrophy
LDL receptor gene (mcq)
chromosome 20
PRION PROTEIN (v.important)
chromosome 21
down syndrome
folic acid transporter (aiims mcq)
alzheimer's disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
chromosome 22
NEUROFIBROMATOSIS -2 gene
cat's eye syndrome(partial trisomy 22)
DRUG OF CHOICE-PART 1
1)DOC for severe falciparum malaria = artesunate (allindia 2009).
2)DOC for obsessive compulsive disorder = SSRIs(fluoxetine) > TCAs(clomipramine). (aiims mcq)
3)DOC for drug induced parkinsonism = centrally acting anticholinergics.
4)DOC for drug induced akathisia = beta blockers > centrally acting anticholinergics ( aiims may2004).
5)DOC for PSVT = adenosine.
6)DOC for seizures in pregnancy = phenobarbitone (allindia mcq)
7)DOC for type 1 lepra rxn = corticosteroids.
8)DOC for type 2 lepra rxn = thalidomide .(allindia 2008)
9)DOC for MRSA = vancomycin > linezolid > ciprofloxacin. (aiims)
10)DOC for enuresis = desmopressin > imipramine.
remember treatment of choice for enuresis = bell and pad method (allindia 2008) .
2)DOC for obsessive compulsive disorder = SSRIs(fluoxetine) > TCAs(clomipramine). (aiims mcq)
3)DOC for drug induced parkinsonism = centrally acting anticholinergics.
4)DOC for drug induced akathisia = beta blockers > centrally acting anticholinergics ( aiims may2004).
5)DOC for PSVT = adenosine.
6)DOC for seizures in pregnancy = phenobarbitone (allindia mcq)
7)DOC for type 1 lepra rxn = corticosteroids.
8)DOC for type 2 lepra rxn = thalidomide .(allindia 2008)
9)DOC for MRSA = vancomycin > linezolid > ciprofloxacin. (aiims)
10)DOC for enuresis = desmopressin > imipramine.
remember treatment of choice for enuresis = bell and pad method (allindia 2008) .
some BIOCHEMICAL abnormalities to remember
remember these biochemical abnormalities.....all mcqs
1) congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis------hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.(aiims mcq)
2)BARTTER'S SYNDROME-----HYPOKALEMIC HYPOCHLOREMIC METABOLIC ALKALOSIS with HYPERCALCIURIA.(allindia ,hppg)
3)colorectal villous adenoma----hypokalemic hypochloremic hyponatraemic METABOLIC ACIDOSIS.(aiims mcq)
4)LIDDLE SYNDROME-----HYPOKALEMIC ALKALOSIS WITH HYPERTENSION WITH HYPERNATRAEMIA(aiims mcq)
5)GORDON SYNDROME----HYPERKALEMIC ACIDOSIS WITH HYPERTENSION. (pgi mcq)
6)ureterosigmoidostomy----hyperchloremic acidosis with hypokalemia .(aiims mcq)
1) congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis------hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.(aiims mcq)
2)BARTTER'S SYNDROME-----HYPOKALEMIC HYPOCHLOREMIC METABOLIC ALKALOSIS with HYPERCALCIURIA.(allindia ,hppg)
3)colorectal villous adenoma----hypokalemic hypochloremic hyponatraemic METABOLIC ACIDOSIS.(aiims mcq)
4)LIDDLE SYNDROME-----HYPOKALEMIC ALKALOSIS WITH HYPERTENSION WITH HYPERNATRAEMIA(aiims mcq)
5)GORDON SYNDROME----HYPERKALEMIC ACIDOSIS WITH HYPERTENSION. (pgi mcq)
6)ureterosigmoidostomy----hyperchloremic acidosis with hypokalemia .(aiims mcq)
Saturday, April 3, 2010
mock test 1
solve it without looking at the answers first
ques 1)most common organ injured in blast injury?
a)lungs b)colon c)middle ear d)eyes.
ques 2) a normal husband and normal wife have a child with cystic fibrosis.....what is the probability of the child being a boy with cystic fibrosis???
a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 1/8 d) 1/4.
ques 3) coagulative necrosis is found in
a)tuberculosis b)fungal infections c)sarcoidosis d)gangrene.
ques 4)all are seen in dengue except
a)anaemia b)leucopenia c)thrombocytopenia d)none of these.
ques 5)drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis
a)third generation cephalosporins b)penicillinG c)rifampicin d)sulfadiazine.
ques 6)which of the following antiparkinsonism drugs is approved for use in ''restless legs syndrome''
a)levodopa b)amantadine c)ropinirole d)centrally acting anticholinergics.
ques 7)all of the following cause noninvasive diarrhoea except?
a)staph.aureus b)yersinia enterocolitis c)bacillus cereus d)enterotoxigenic E.coli.
ques 8)all cause hirsutism except?
a)flutamide b)phenytoin c)diazoxide d)minoxidil.
ques 9)which of these is not associated with von hipple lindau syndrome
a)cerebellar hemangioendothelioma b)renal cell carcinoma c)pheochromocytoma d)all are associated.
ques 10) all are markers of bone resorption except?
a)TRAP
b)urine total free deoxypyridinoline
c)serum propeptide of type 1 procollagen
d)urine and serum cross linked N-telopeptide.
ques 11)painless genital ulcer with no lymphadenopathy suggests
a)syphilis b)LGV c)herpes d)donovanosis.
ques 12)which of these is characteristically spared in osteoarthritis?
a)wrist b)elbow c)ankle
d)all are spared in OA.
ques 13)deltoid ligament is attached to all except?
a)medial malleolus b)medial cuneiform
c)spring ligament d)sustentaculum tali.
ques 14)terms 'dementia precox' and 'schizophrenia' are coined respectively by
a)kraepelin and bleuler b)bleuler and kraepelin c)kraepelin and freud d)bleuler and kraepelin.
ques 15)dead space is increased by all except?
a)anticholinergic drugs b)standing
c)hyperextension of neck d)endotracheal intubation.
ques 16)all true about hallucinations except?
a)it is as vivid as sense perception
b)it is independent of the will of the observer
c)occurs in inner subjective space
d)it occurs in absence of perceptual stimulus.
ques 17)drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction
a)corticosteroids b)thalidomide c)cyclosporine
d)stop all antileprosy drugs.
ques 18)in oxy-Hb curve ,shift to left occurs with
a)increased 2,3-DPG
b)fetal Hb
c)decreased pH
d)increased temperature.
ques 19)OCPs are protective in all except?
a)carcinoma ovary
b)colorectal carcinoma
c)carcinoma endometrium
d)carcinoma cervix.
ques 20)which is not a B-cell marker
a)CD 10 b)CD 19 c)CD 20 d)CD 135.
ANSWERS
ques 1)C organ most commonly injured in blast injury= middle ear > lungs > colon.
ques 2)C probability of being a boy is 1/2 and probability of being affected with cystic fibrosis(autosomal recessive) in child of heterozygous parents(normal) is 1/4....
so probability of being a boy with cystic fibrosis is i/2 * 1/4 =1/8
ques 3)D see ques67 aiims feb 1997.......remember that
GANGRENE=COAGULATIVE NECROSIS;;;;;;
WET GANGRENE=LIQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS ........
also see ques 72 allindia 2009,There option d was 'wet gangrene' instead of 'gangrene' ,,,,so accordingly answer was tuberculosis
ques 4)A in dengue,,,,anaemia is not seen....rather there is increased haematocrit.
ques 5)C mudit khanna ques 132 allindia 2009 writes sulfadiazine.......ITS A MISTAKE......answer is rifampicin .
ques 6)C this is a totally new question...this statement was there in one of the options of a ques in pgi nov 2009.....so may repeat....answer is ropinirole
ques 7)B see ques 162 allindia 2009 for explanation
ques 8)A flutamide is used to treat hirsutism...it does not cause hirsutism....this ques came in allindia 2010....for reference see explanation of q173 allindia 2009
ques 9)A VHL is associated with hemangioblaSTOMAS and not hemangioENDOTHELIOMAS.......this is an AIIMS ques...ques 130 nov aiims 07
ques10)C revise this topic...very imp....ques 92 aiims may2008
ques11)D REMEMBER FEW THINGS
painless ulcer with NO lymphadenopathy=donovanosis
painless ulcer with painless LAP=syphilis
painless ulcer with tender LAP=LGV
ques12)D wrist,elbow and ankle are characteristically spared in OA-----harrison
ques13)B see ques 1 of aiims may 2009....answer is medial cuneiform
ques14)A dementia precox---kraepelin.........................schicophrenia--bleuler
ques15)D See ques 179 may aiims 2009
ques16)C hallucinations occur in outer objective space,not in inner subjective space.......plz refer ques194 may aiims 2009....this topic is important
ques17)B doc for type 2 lepra rxn is THALIDOMIDE and not corticosteroids as written in muditkhanna allindia2008 ques280
ques18)b easy one but its important,so revise it
ques19)D OCPs are avoided in carcinoma cervix,,,,,,in rest three they are protective
ques20)D this is a ques from aiims nov 2009....CD10,19,20 are b-cell markers
ques 1)most common organ injured in blast injury?
a)lungs b)colon c)middle ear d)eyes.
ques 2) a normal husband and normal wife have a child with cystic fibrosis.....what is the probability of the child being a boy with cystic fibrosis???
a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 1/8 d) 1/4.
ques 3) coagulative necrosis is found in
a)tuberculosis b)fungal infections c)sarcoidosis d)gangrene.
ques 4)all are seen in dengue except
a)anaemia b)leucopenia c)thrombocytopenia d)none of these.
ques 5)drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis
a)third generation cephalosporins b)penicillinG c)rifampicin d)sulfadiazine.
ques 6)which of the following antiparkinsonism drugs is approved for use in ''restless legs syndrome''
a)levodopa b)amantadine c)ropinirole d)centrally acting anticholinergics.
ques 7)all of the following cause noninvasive diarrhoea except?
a)staph.aureus b)yersinia enterocolitis c)bacillus cereus d)enterotoxigenic E.coli.
ques 8)all cause hirsutism except?
a)flutamide b)phenytoin c)diazoxide d)minoxidil.
ques 9)which of these is not associated with von hipple lindau syndrome
a)cerebellar hemangioendothelioma b)renal cell carcinoma c)pheochromocytoma d)all are associated.
ques 10) all are markers of bone resorption except?
a)TRAP
b)urine total free deoxypyridinoline
c)serum propeptide of type 1 procollagen
d)urine and serum cross linked N-telopeptide.
ques 11)painless genital ulcer with no lymphadenopathy suggests
a)syphilis b)LGV c)herpes d)donovanosis.
ques 12)which of these is characteristically spared in osteoarthritis?
a)wrist b)elbow c)ankle
d)all are spared in OA.
ques 13)deltoid ligament is attached to all except?
a)medial malleolus b)medial cuneiform
c)spring ligament d)sustentaculum tali.
ques 14)terms 'dementia precox' and 'schizophrenia' are coined respectively by
a)kraepelin and bleuler b)bleuler and kraepelin c)kraepelin and freud d)bleuler and kraepelin.
ques 15)dead space is increased by all except?
a)anticholinergic drugs b)standing
c)hyperextension of neck d)endotracheal intubation.
ques 16)all true about hallucinations except?
a)it is as vivid as sense perception
b)it is independent of the will of the observer
c)occurs in inner subjective space
d)it occurs in absence of perceptual stimulus.
ques 17)drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction
a)corticosteroids b)thalidomide c)cyclosporine
d)stop all antileprosy drugs.
ques 18)in oxy-Hb curve ,shift to left occurs with
a)increased 2,3-DPG
b)fetal Hb
c)decreased pH
d)increased temperature.
ques 19)OCPs are protective in all except?
a)carcinoma ovary
b)colorectal carcinoma
c)carcinoma endometrium
d)carcinoma cervix.
ques 20)which is not a B-cell marker
a)CD 10 b)CD 19 c)CD 20 d)CD 135.
ANSWERS
ques 1)C organ most commonly injured in blast injury= middle ear > lungs > colon.
ques 2)C probability of being a boy is 1/2 and probability of being affected with cystic fibrosis(autosomal recessive) in child of heterozygous parents(normal) is 1/4....
so probability of being a boy with cystic fibrosis is i/2 * 1/4 =1/8
ques 3)D see ques67 aiims feb 1997.......remember that
GANGRENE=COAGULATIVE NECROSIS;;;;;;
WET GANGRENE=LIQUEFACTIVE NECROSIS ........
also see ques 72 allindia 2009,There option d was 'wet gangrene' instead of 'gangrene' ,,,,so accordingly answer was tuberculosis
ques 4)A in dengue,,,,anaemia is not seen....rather there is increased haematocrit.
ques 5)C mudit khanna ques 132 allindia 2009 writes sulfadiazine.......ITS A MISTAKE......answer is rifampicin .
ques 6)C this is a totally new question...this statement was there in one of the options of a ques in pgi nov 2009.....so may repeat....answer is ropinirole
ques 7)B see ques 162 allindia 2009 for explanation
ques 8)A flutamide is used to treat hirsutism...it does not cause hirsutism....this ques came in allindia 2010....for reference see explanation of q173 allindia 2009
ques 9)A VHL is associated with hemangioblaSTOMAS and not hemangioENDOTHELIOMAS.......this is an AIIMS ques...ques 130 nov aiims 07
ques10)C revise this topic...very imp....ques 92 aiims may2008
ques11)D REMEMBER FEW THINGS
painless ulcer with NO lymphadenopathy=donovanosis
painless ulcer with painless LAP=syphilis
painless ulcer with tender LAP=LGV
ques12)D wrist,elbow and ankle are characteristically spared in OA-----harrison
ques13)B see ques 1 of aiims may 2009....answer is medial cuneiform
ques14)A dementia precox---kraepelin.........................schicophrenia--bleuler
ques15)D See ques 179 may aiims 2009
ques16)C hallucinations occur in outer objective space,not in inner subjective space.......plz refer ques194 may aiims 2009....this topic is important
ques17)B doc for type 2 lepra rxn is THALIDOMIDE and not corticosteroids as written in muditkhanna allindia2008 ques280
ques18)b easy one but its important,so revise it
ques19)D OCPs are avoided in carcinoma cervix,,,,,,in rest three they are protective
ques20)D this is a ques from aiims nov 2009....CD10,19,20 are b-cell markers
death......
most common cause of death in
1)crohn's disease= malignancy>sepsis (aiims 09)
2)amyloidosis(overall)=renal dysfunction
3)primary amyloidosis=cardiac dysfunction>renal(allindia mcq)
4)post total hip replacement=thromboembolism (allindia 2009)
5)lepromatous leprosy=renal failure(allindia mcq)
6)cystic fibrosis= lung infections
7)carcinoma cervix= uraemia
8)cafe coronary =reflex cardiac arrest >asphyxia(aiims mcq)
9)throttling= carotid artery occlusion >airway obstruction
10)multiple myeloma= infections
1)crohn's disease= malignancy>sepsis (aiims 09)
2)amyloidosis(overall)=renal dysfunction
3)primary amyloidosis=cardiac dysfunction>renal(allindia mcq)
4)post total hip replacement=thromboembolism (allindia 2009)
5)lepromatous leprosy=renal failure(allindia mcq)
6)cystic fibrosis= lung infections
7)carcinoma cervix= uraemia
8)cafe coronary =reflex cardiac arrest >asphyxia(aiims mcq)
9)throttling= carotid artery occlusion >airway obstruction
10)multiple myeloma= infections
Friday, April 2, 2010
prion disease
PRION DISEASE==FEW IMPORTANT FACTS TO REMEMBER =ALL MCQs in recent allindia/aiims
1)prion disease may manifest as SPORADIC/INFECTIOUS/GENETIC disease
2)most common prion disease in human =SPORADIC CREUTZFELDT JAKOB DISEASE
3)prions are INFECTIOUS PROTEINACEOUS PARTICLES devoid of nucleic acids
4)prions cause misfolding of other proteins
5)normal cellular isoform of prion protein is PRPc (with alpha helix as its secondary structure)
infectious isoform is PRPsc (with beta sheets as its secondary structure)
it is this ''transition from alpha helix to beta sheets secondary structure'' that is responsible for its pathogenesis.
6)gene for prion protein is located on short arm of chromosome 20
7)prions are most resistant infectious particles to antiseptics
1)prion disease may manifest as SPORADIC/INFECTIOUS/GENETIC disease
2)most common prion disease in human =SPORADIC CREUTZFELDT JAKOB DISEASE
3)prions are INFECTIOUS PROTEINACEOUS PARTICLES devoid of nucleic acids
4)prions cause misfolding of other proteins
5)normal cellular isoform of prion protein is PRPc (with alpha helix as its secondary structure)
infectious isoform is PRPsc (with beta sheets as its secondary structure)
it is this ''transition from alpha helix to beta sheets secondary structure'' that is responsible for its pathogenesis.
6)gene for prion protein is located on short arm of chromosome 20
7)prions are most resistant infectious particles to antiseptics
CHAK DE !!!
In 1981,IDBI bank rejected loan plea of Dheerubhai ambani,,,,
In 2008,Mukesh ambani offered to buy IDBI bank.
In 2008,Mukesh ambani offered to buy IDBI bank.
NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE!!!!
high yielding facts part 3
1)most common glucocoticoid secreted endogeneously=hydrocortisone
most useful glucocoticoid for fetal lung maturity=betamethasone (mcq)
most useful glucocoticoid for treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia =dexamethasone (mcq)
2)most common site of colonic diverticulosis=sigmoid colon
most common site of volvulus=sigmoid colon
3)movements lost in erb's palsy= (mnemonic- sERab) 1)s=supination;2)ER=external rotation;3)ab=abduction
4) following act through cGMP = 1)nitric oxide 2)atrial natriuretic peptide
5)insulin GLARGINE and DETERMIR are ultralong acting insulin
LISPRO,ASPART and GLULISINE are ultrashort.
6)type 1 thyroplasty=medialisation
type 2 thyroplasty=lateralisation
type 3 thyroplasty=shortening/relaxation
type 4 thyroplasty=lengthening/tensioning---used in treatment of androphonia (mcq)
7)inguinal lymphnode involvement in Ca.endometrium denotes stage 4B ,,,In Ca.ovary=stage 3C,,,and in Ca.cervix=inguinal node involvement does not alter staging
8)ketamine causes postoperative nausea and vomiting,,,,,,,,,,,,,,propofol has antiemetic property
9)to visualise calcifications= CT is a better investigation than MRI
10)to visualise soft tissue masses= MRI is a better investigation than CT
most useful glucocoticoid for fetal lung maturity=betamethasone (mcq)
most useful glucocoticoid for treatment of congenital adrenal hyperplasia =dexamethasone (mcq)
2)most common site of colonic diverticulosis=sigmoid colon
most common site of volvulus=sigmoid colon
3)movements lost in erb's palsy= (mnemonic- sERab) 1)s=supination;2)ER=external rotation;3)ab=abduction
4) following act through cGMP = 1)nitric oxide 2)atrial natriuretic peptide
5)insulin GLARGINE and DETERMIR are ultralong acting insulin
LISPRO,ASPART and GLULISINE are ultrashort.
6)type 1 thyroplasty=medialisation
type 2 thyroplasty=lateralisation
type 3 thyroplasty=shortening/relaxation
type 4 thyroplasty=lengthening/tensioning---used in treatment of androphonia (mcq)
7)inguinal lymphnode involvement in Ca.endometrium denotes stage 4B ,,,In Ca.ovary=stage 3C,,,and in Ca.cervix=inguinal node involvement does not alter staging
8)ketamine causes postoperative nausea and vomiting,,,,,,,,,,,,,,propofol has antiemetic property
9)to visualise calcifications= CT is a better investigation than MRI
10)to visualise soft tissue masses= MRI is a better investigation than CT
SEEN IN part 2
11)resting tremors------parkinsonism
12)intention tremors-----cerebellar disorder
13)trantas spots at limbus-----vernal keratoconjunctivitis(spring catarrh)
14)herbert pits------trachoma
15)pannus-----trachoma
16)arlt's line==linear scar in sulcus subtarsalis------trachoma
17)dissociative anaesthesia-----ketamine
18dissociative sensory loss------syringomyelia
19)turban eppiglottis------laryngeal tuberculosis
20)omega shaped epiglottis-----laryngomalacia
21)bull like neck-----laryngeal diphtheria
22)bull's eye maculopathy-----chloroquine toxicity
23)thumbprint sign ----acute epiglottitis
24)steeple sign------acute laryngotracheobronchitis or croup
25)pauterier microabscesses----mycosis fungoides
26)micromunro abscesses-----psoriasis
27)giant platelets-----bernard souilier syndrome
28)tiny platelets------wiscott aldrich syndrome
29)call exner bodies-----granulosa theca cell tumour ovary
30)schillar duval bodies------endodermal sinus tumour ovary
12)intention tremors-----cerebellar disorder
13)trantas spots at limbus-----vernal keratoconjunctivitis(spring catarrh)
14)herbert pits------trachoma
15)pannus-----trachoma
16)arlt's line==linear scar in sulcus subtarsalis------trachoma
17)dissociative anaesthesia-----ketamine
18dissociative sensory loss------syringomyelia
19)turban eppiglottis------laryngeal tuberculosis
20)omega shaped epiglottis-----laryngomalacia
21)bull like neck-----laryngeal diphtheria
22)bull's eye maculopathy-----chloroquine toxicity
23)thumbprint sign ----acute epiglottitis
24)steeple sign------acute laryngotracheobronchitis or croup
25)pauterier microabscesses----mycosis fungoides
26)micromunro abscesses-----psoriasis
27)giant platelets-----bernard souilier syndrome
28)tiny platelets------wiscott aldrich syndrome
29)call exner bodies-----granulosa theca cell tumour ovary
30)schillar duval bodies------endodermal sinus tumour ovary
following are SEEN IN........part 1
ALL THESE HAVE BEEN ASKED IN ALLINDIA/AIIMS/PGI
1) HERALD PATCH is seen in PITYRIASIS ROSEA
2)CIRCLE OF HEBRA--------SCABIES
3)PINCH PURPURA--------PRIMARY SYSTEMIC AMYLOIDOSIS
4)PERIORBITAL PURPURA(RACOON EYES)--------PRIMARY SYSTEMIC AMYLOIDOSIS
5)SAUSAGE DIGITS------REITERS DISEASE
6)SPAGHETTI AND MEATBALL APPEARANCE ON 10%KOH MOUNT---------PTYRIASIS VERSICOLOR
7)MIGRATORY NECROLYTIC ERYTHEMA----------GLUCAGONOMA
8)APPLE CORE SIGN(on barium enema)-------CA.COLON
9)APPLE JELLY NODULES(on diascopy)----LUPUS VULGARIS
10)PATHERGY TEST-------BEHCET'S SYNDROME
1) HERALD PATCH is seen in PITYRIASIS ROSEA
2)CIRCLE OF HEBRA--------SCABIES
3)PINCH PURPURA--------PRIMARY SYSTEMIC AMYLOIDOSIS
4)PERIORBITAL PURPURA(RACOON EYES)--------PRIMARY SYSTEMIC AMYLOIDOSIS
5)SAUSAGE DIGITS------REITERS DISEASE
6)SPAGHETTI AND MEATBALL APPEARANCE ON 10%KOH MOUNT---------PTYRIASIS VERSICOLOR
7)MIGRATORY NECROLYTIC ERYTHEMA----------GLUCAGONOMA
8)APPLE CORE SIGN(on barium enema)-------CA.COLON
9)APPLE JELLY NODULES(on diascopy)----LUPUS VULGARIS
10)PATHERGY TEST-------BEHCET'S SYNDROME
Thursday, April 1, 2010
MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES to remember
1)RITUXIMAB--------ANTI CD20 used in ANCA associated vasculitis,,B cell lymphomas,,rheumatoid arthtitis,,SLE,,ITP,,TTP,,pemphigus vulgaris (PGI QUES)
2)TRASTUZUMAB-----ANTI HER-2/NEU RECEPTOR used in breast cancer [AIIMS 08]
3)ALEMTUZUMAB------ANTI CD52 [AIIMSMCQ] used in chronic lymphoid leukemia and T-cell cancers
4)BEVACIZUMAB-------ANTI VEGF used in CA colon,breast.lung...also tried in ca.ovary
5)CITUXIMAB-------ANTI EGFR used in colorectal cancer refratory to chemotherapy and in primary treatment of head and neck cancers[AI 2009]
6)PANITUMOMAB------ANTI EGFR uses same as cituximab
7)OMALIZUMAB------ANTI IgE (MCQ) used in bronchial asthma
8)ECULIZUMAB--------ANTI COMPLEMENT PROTEIN C5-------used in PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)
9)NATALIZUMAB------ANTI INTEGRIN---------------used in MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
10)ALEFACEPT--------ANTI CD2--------------used in psoriasis
11)EFALIZUMAB------ANTI CD11a---------used in psoriasis
12)GEMTUZUMAB---ANTI CD33----------used in AML
13)PALIVIZUMAB----------used in RSV PNEUMONIA (PGI QUES)
14)DONESUMAB--------ANTI RANK LIGAND------used in osteoporosis
15)MUROMONAB(OKT-3) ------ANTI CD3------used in renal transplant rejection
2)TRASTUZUMAB-----ANTI HER-2/NEU RECEPTOR used in breast cancer [AIIMS 08]
3)ALEMTUZUMAB------ANTI CD52 [AIIMSMCQ] used in chronic lymphoid leukemia and T-cell cancers
4)BEVACIZUMAB-------ANTI VEGF used in CA colon,breast.lung...also tried in ca.ovary
5)CITUXIMAB-------ANTI EGFR used in colorectal cancer refratory to chemotherapy and in primary treatment of head and neck cancers[AI 2009]
6)PANITUMOMAB------ANTI EGFR uses same as cituximab
7)OMALIZUMAB------ANTI IgE (MCQ) used in bronchial asthma
8)ECULIZUMAB--------ANTI COMPLEMENT PROTEIN C5-------used in PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)
9)NATALIZUMAB------ANTI INTEGRIN---------------used in MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
10)ALEFACEPT--------ANTI CD2--------------used in psoriasis
11)EFALIZUMAB------ANTI CD11a---------used in psoriasis
12)GEMTUZUMAB---ANTI CD33----------used in AML
13)PALIVIZUMAB----------used in RSV PNEUMONIA (PGI QUES)
14)DONESUMAB--------ANTI RANK LIGAND------used in osteoporosis
15)MUROMONAB(OKT-3) ------ANTI CD3------used in renal transplant rejection
investigation of choice---all MCQs
INVESTIGATION OF CHOICE(IOC) .......all have been asked as MCQs before
1)for acoustic neuroma-----------------------gadolinium DTPA enhanced MRI
2)nasopharyngeal angiofibroma----------CECT scan
3)posterior fossa tumours------------------MRI
4)DVT--------------------------venous USG
5)pulmonary embolism-----------------CT chest with contrast
6)imaging of seminal vesicle and ejaculatory ducts------vasography > transrectal USG
7)extraintestinal amoebiasis--------ELISA
8)avascular necrosis--------------MRI
9)interstitial lung disease------HRCT scan
10)bronchiectasis------------HRCT scan
11)osteoporosis---------DEXA scan(dual energy x-ray absorptiometry)
12)acute ureteric colic--------non contrast spiral CT scan abdomen
13)renal TB early stage-----IVP
late stage------CTscan
14)localization of pheochromocytoma------MRI
15)acute dissection of aorta-----transoesophageal ECHO
16)chronic dissection of aorta(in stable patients)-----MRI
17)congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis------USG
18)extrahepatic biliary atresia-------peroperative cholangiogram
19)discrete swelling(solitary nodule) of thyroid-----FNAC
20)acute Subarachnoid haemorrhage(SAH)-----noncontrast CT HEAD
21)to localise site of bleed in SAH-----------4 vessel X-ray angiography
1)for acoustic neuroma-----------------------gadolinium DTPA enhanced MRI
2)nasopharyngeal angiofibroma----------CECT scan
3)posterior fossa tumours------------------MRI
4)DVT--------------------------venous USG
5)pulmonary embolism-----------------CT chest with contrast
6)imaging of seminal vesicle and ejaculatory ducts------vasography > transrectal USG
7)extraintestinal amoebiasis--------ELISA
8)avascular necrosis--------------MRI
9)interstitial lung disease------HRCT scan
10)bronchiectasis------------HRCT scan
11)osteoporosis---------DEXA scan(dual energy x-ray absorptiometry)
12)acute ureteric colic--------non contrast spiral CT scan abdomen
13)renal TB early stage-----IVP
late stage------CTscan
14)localization of pheochromocytoma------MRI
15)acute dissection of aorta-----transoesophageal ECHO
16)chronic dissection of aorta(in stable patients)-----MRI
17)congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis------USG
18)extrahepatic biliary atresia-------peroperative cholangiogram
19)discrete swelling(solitary nodule) of thyroid-----FNAC
20)acute Subarachnoid haemorrhage(SAH)-----noncontrast CT HEAD
21)to localise site of bleed in SAH-----------4 vessel X-ray angiography
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