TRY AND TRY AGAIN...UNTILL YOU SUCCEED

''it ain't about how hard you hit. It's about how hard you can get hit and keep moving forward. How much you can take and keep moving forward. That's how winning is done!''







hey friends,,,i wish you bestest of luck ahead.....work hard to achieve big in life,,,,ALL THE BEST !!!!



this blog contains posts under labels of entrance preparation,,inspirational stuff,, and offbeat activities..select from labels displayed on the right hand side of your screen.



if you find any mistake/doubt in the material for entrance preparation i post here,,do post your doubt/query in the the COMMENT SECTION below every post....i will answer them with in 24 hours....





the whole purpose of this blog is to encourage discussion among ourselves and thereby making studies a lot more interesting.



so please discuss the doubts you have...





HAPPY STUDYING !!!





regards



DR KUNAL MAHAJAN



mbbs(rpgmc tanda)

md med student(pgims rohtak)









Saturday, April 10, 2010

MOCK TEST 5

hello guys....the test contains 30 questions
time limit = 25 min
it contains maximum repeats

if you get >25 correct = superb!PG seat is waiting for u..just keep going


20-25 = great performance....keep revising and give maximum number of mocks


15-20 =good
10-15=average
<10> = not good,but dont worry,,,you still can fight back
work hard to reach the top.NOTHING'S IMPOSSIBLE!!!



ques 1)while doing thoracocentesis,it is advisable to introduce needle along :
a)upper border of the rib
b)lower border of the rib
c)in the center of intercostal space
d)in anterior part of intercostal space

ques 2)all are true about nitric oxide except?
a)acts through cAMP
b)helps to regulate vascular tone
c)important role in penile erection
d)present in low concentration in cigarette smokers

ques 3)For PCR which of the following is not required?
a)Taq polymerase
b)d-NTP
c)primer
d)radiolabelled DNA probe

ques 4)Section 377 deals with:-
a) unnatural offences
b) rape
c) incest
d) adultery

ques 5)specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
a)true positives
b)true negatives
c)false positives
d)false negatives

ques 6)nitrates can be used in all except?
a)CHF
b)oesophageal spasm
c)cyanide poisoning
d)renal colic

ques 7)gene for prion protein is present on
a)chromosome 17
b)chromosome 18
c)chromosome 19
d)chromosome 20


ques 8)all of the following vibrio species are halophilic except?
a)V.cholerae
b)V.parahaemolyticus
c)V.alginolyticus
d)V.fluvialis

ques 9)cluster headache is characterized by,except
a)affects predominantly females
b)unilateral headache
c)onset typically in 20-50 years of life
d)associated with conjunctival congestion.

ques 10)non progressive contraction of oesophagus are
a)primary
b)secondary
c)tertiary
d)quaternary

ques 11)most common organism causing infectious oesophagitis?
a)HPV
b)candida
c)e.coli
d)streptococcus viridans

ques 12)nugent score is used to diagnose
a)multiple sclerosis
b)severity of abdominal trauma
c)subarachnoid haemorrhage
d)bacterial vaginosis

ques 13)most common site of bony metastasis in carcinoma prostate?
a)pelvis
b)proximal femur
c)lumbar spine
d)thoracic spine

ques 14)persistence of MORO's reflex beyond _____ months is suggestive of cerebral dysfunction?
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6

ques 15)all are features of horner's syndrome except?
a)miosis
b)anhydrosis
c)ptosis
d)exophthalmos


ques 16)in right middle ear pathology weber's test will be
a)normal
b)centralised
c)lateralised to right side
d)lateralised to left side

ques 17)pityriasis rosea,false is
a)self limiting disorder
b)papulosquamous disorder
c)herald patch is first lesion to be seen,present in 80 % patients.
d)caused by dermatophytes

ques 18)pancuronium derivative with no vagolytic activity
a)pipecuronium
b)rocuronium
c)vecuronium
d)rapacuronium

ques 19)epiphyseal bone tumour
a)osteoclastoma
b)ewing's sarcoma
c)chondromyxoid fibroma
d)osteosarcoma

ques 20)the radiation tolerance of whole liver is
a)15 Gy
b)30 Gy
c)40 Gy
d)45 Gy

ques 21)endophthalmitis includes all except
a)vitreous
b)sclera
c)uvea
d)retina

ques 22)all are anti TNF-alpha drugs except?
a)tirofiban
b)infliximab
c)etarnecept
d)adalimumab

ques 23)which of the following is not true regarding bernard soulier syndrome?
a)ristocetin aggregation is abnormal.
b)aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
c)small platelets
d)thrombocytopenia


ques 24)which of the following is most commonly used in narcoanalysis?
a)atropine sulphate
b)scopolamine hydrobromide
c)opium compounds
d)thiopentone

ques 25)In lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma, M component , most commonly consists of
a)IgG
b)IgM
c)IgA
d)IgD

ques 26)deficiency of which of the following membrane proteins is most commonly involved in pathogenesis
of PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)

a)DAF
b)MIRL
c)c8 binding protein
d)all are equally involved

ques 27)all of the following antiepileptics act via prolongation of sodium channel inactivation, except?
a)phenytoin
b)phenobarbitone
c)topiramate
d)lamotrigine

ques 28)which of the following is not included in major jone's criteria?
a)pancarditis
b)chorea
c)arthritis
d)elevated ESR

ques 29)most common site of cholangiocarcinoma?
a)distal biliary duct
b)hilum
c)intrahepatic duct
d)multifocal

ques 30)sphincter of oddi consists of
a)2 sphincters
b)3 sphincters
c)4 sphincters
d)5 sphincters


please post your answers in the COMMENTS section below this post.





46 comments:

  1. 1a 2a 3d 4a 5b 6c 7d 8a 9a 10c 11a 12b 13c 14a 15d 16c 17d 18d 19a 20b 21b 22a 23c 24b 25a 26c 27b 28d 29b 30b

    ReplyDelete
  2. @sanyog...well done dude...you got 20/30 correct =>considering negative marking you get 17.5/30 => nearly 60 % and this much score in any mock is good :) :)
    keep it up
    you will do it :)

    ReplyDelete
  3. once you attempt the test here,i will mail you the answers asap :)

    ReplyDelete
  4. abey yaar galtiyaan ho hi jaati hain

    ReplyDelete
  5. 1A,2D,3B,4A,5B,6D,7D,8A,9A,10-,11B,12D,13C,14A,15D,16C,17C,18-,19A,20A,21D,22C,23A,24-,25C,26B,27D,28D,29B,30B

    ReplyDelete
  6. yes but in entrance funda of success is minimising you mistakes
    and that can be done only by giving maximum mock tests
    so revise revise and revise again

    ReplyDelete
  7. @gaurav...you got 16/20 correct
    thats good buddy
    you are scoring that much with JOB
    hats off,,,,
    just keep studying
    you are gonna do it :) :)

    ReplyDelete
  8. oh!i m sorry
    gaurav you got 16/30 correct
    keep going buddy
    you will do it :)

    ReplyDelete
  9. ye to kafeeee zaydaa ZALIM paper tha yaar... nice 1 dude...most of dem r very imp nd common Q par karte time jayda yaad nahee aata... grd grd stuff man

    ReplyDelete
  10. 1a 2(b) 3d 4a 5b 6d 7(d) 8a 9a 10b 11(b) 12b 13c 14(d) 15d 16c 17(d) 18(b) 19a 20c 21b 22a 23a 24b 25b 26(d) 27d 28d 29a 30b


    P.S. brackets one are guesses

    ReplyDelete
  11. 1)a
    2)a
    3)b
    4)a
    5)b
    6)d
    7)d
    8)a
    9)a
    10)b
    11)b
    12)d
    13)c
    14)d
    15)d
    16):-(
    17)b
    18)c
    19)a
    20)c
    21)d
    22)a
    23)c
    24)b
    25)a
    26)a
    27)b
    28)d
    29)b
    30)b

    ReplyDelete
  12. 1)a 2)a 3)d 4)a 5)b 6)d 7)d 8)a 9)a 10)c 11)b 12)a 13)c 14)a 15)d 16)d 17)d 18)d 19)a 20)c 21)b 22)a 23)c 24)b 25)a 26)a 27)c 28)d 29)b 30)b

    ReplyDelete
  13. 1a,2a,3d,4a,5b,6d,7d,8a,9a,10c,11b,12c,13a,14a,15d,16c,17b,18a,19a,20c,21b,22a,23c,24d,25a,26b,27b,28d,29b,30b

    ReplyDelete
  14. 1A 2A 3B 4C 5B 6C 7D 8A 9A 10B 11B 12B 13C 14B

    15D 16A 17C 18B 19A 20A 21A 22A 23C 24B 25B 26B

    27B 28D 29B 30B

    ReplyDelete
  15. @varun....20/30
    @benley...20/30
    @aanchal...21/30
    @dr.pawan...24/30

    great performance everyone :) :)

    keep revising more and more

    ReplyDelete
  16. key will be displayed tomorrow evening.

    all those who are attempting here will get emails containing answers with explanations within one hour of attempting test.
    happy studying

    ReplyDelete
  17. grt buddy u can really help guys who usually misuse the internet...... LIKE ME :)
    keep gng..........

    ReplyDelete
  18. @drsalaria....you got 17/30 correct which is good considering you are studying with job
    keep going :)
    and thanx for the complement...i will try my best to help my frenzz

    ReplyDelete
  19. 1 A 2 A 3D 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 D 8 A 9 A 10 B 11D 12C 13C 14A 15D 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 A 20C 21D 22 A 23B 24B 25A 26 B 27D 28 D 29A 30 B

    ReplyDelete
  20. @ varun...i am sorry
    you have got 22/30
    i made a mistake in calculation

    ReplyDelete
  21. 1 A 2 A 3D 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 D 8 A 9 A 10 B 11D 12C 13C 14A 15D 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 A 20C 21D 22 A 23B 24B 25A 26 B 27D 28 D 29A 30 B

    ReplyDelete
  22. @aditya....good attempt dude...you got 17/30 correct
    its just the start of preparation session and you already have a base..
    now capitalise on it and just finish off mudit khanna and amit ashish till 1998 papers with more focus on 2004-2010 papers
    u will surely do well
    keep working towards your goal

    ReplyDelete
  23. @dr.salaria....please send me your email address at kunalmahajan442@gmail.com ,so that i can mail you the explanations
    thanx

    ReplyDelete
  24. and guys for daily MCQs and high yielding points...join tandamedicos sms group since i will be updating my blog only 1-2 times /week after my session starts in may/june..
    but i will keep sending sms mcqs DAILY to those in the group,RIGHT THROUGH THE YEAR..
    so to join the group, sms JOIN tandamedicos at 9219592195

    ReplyDelete
  25. @aditya do send me your email address :) so that i can send the answers with explanations and references

    ReplyDelete
  26. 1A 2A 3D 4A 5B 6D 7D 8A 9A 10C 11B 12C 13C 14A 15D 16C 17B 18-- 19A 20B 21B 23A 24B 25A 26-- 27B 28D 29B 30B

    ReplyDelete
  27. @dr.atul,,,,you got 20 correct out of 28 you attempted...and two were left unattempted..
    thats a good attempt...tanda students will rock allindia next year :) :) :) :) keep working hard :) :)

    ReplyDelete
  28. top three positions so far
    1)dr.pawan=24/30
    2)dr.aanchal=21/30
    3)dr.atul=20/30(attempted lesser than others who also got 20)

    keep working hard everyone
    you all are gonna rock allindia next year......AMEN!!1

    ReplyDelete
  29. 1a
    2a
    3d
    4a
    5b
    6a
    7d
    8a
    9a
    10a
    11a
    12d
    13c
    14d
    15d
    16c
    17c
    18d
    19a
    20c
    21b
    22a
    23d
    24d
    25b
    26d
    27c
    28d
    29b
    30c

    ReplyDelete
  30. hey i did sms JOIN tandamedicos at 9219592195...but no notification came: and i didnt find any group in smsgupshup.com called 'tandamedicos'!!

    ReplyDelete
  31. @panacea....hey mate,,you got 22/30 correct
    thats very well done
    keep it up :)

    ReplyDelete
  32. @panacea...you are already in list of that sms group...your request has been accepted in the group account
    i hope you must be getting messages by tandamedicos by now
    if not please report it to me....
    thanx

    ReplyDelete
  33. here is the key

    1)a
    2)a
    3)d
    4)a
    5)b
    6)d
    7)d
    8)a
    9)a
    10)c
    11)b
    12)d
    13)c
    14)d
    15)d
    16)c
    17)d
    18)a
    19)a
    20)c
    21)b
    22)a
    23)c
    24)d
    25)b
    26)b
    27)b
    28)d
    29)b
    30)c

    ReplyDelete
  34. those who need the detailed answers can mail me .....
    thanx

    ReplyDelete
  35. hi kunal
    answers acc. to m are:

    1)b 2)a 3)d 4)a 5)b 6)d 7)d 8)a 9)a 10)c
    11)b 12)d 13)a 14)d 15)d 16)c 17)c 18)d 19)a
    20)b 21)b 22)a 23)a 24)b 25)b 26)b 27)b 28)d
    29)b 30)c

    ReplyDelete
  36. hi i don't knw why my comments r not visible??
    whenever i made a comment it says it will b shown after the approval?????
    help.........

    ReplyDelete
  37. @monika....you got 23/30 correct
    great great performance
    keep it up :) :)

    ReplyDelete
  38. @monika...i have kept such settings so that nobody can make any irrevalent/objectionable comments here
    and there by we can keep this blog ,just for the purpose it is meant...

    ReplyDelete
  39. test toppers so far
    1)dr.pawan 24/30
    2)dr.monika 23/30
    3)panacea 22/30

    i will post answers with reference here only in the evening...do check them and post your queries..

    ReplyDelete
  40. hi kunal...r u sure abt q26 n 30???

    ReplyDelete
  41. @aanchal...lets discuss ques 26 first
    read these lines from harrison 17th edition page 661
    " Hypersusceptibility to Complement is due
    to deficiency of several protective membrane proteins, of which CD59
    is the most important because it hinders the insertion of C9 polymers
    into the membrane''
    and these are from robbins 8th edition
    PNH blood cells are deficient in three GPI-linked proteins that regulate complement activity: (1) decay–accelerating factor, or CD55; (2) membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis, or CD59; and (3) C8 binding protein. Of these factors, the most important is CD59, a potent inhibitor of C3 convertase that prevents the spontaneous activation of the alternative complement pathway."

    clearly CD59 is the most important and mainly involved in the pathogenesis of PNH

    ReplyDelete
  42. QUES 30)HOW many sphincter of oddi??? 3 or 4
    lets see various answers
    1)amit ashish= 3
    2)sabiston =3
    3)shwartz = 3

    4)gray's latest (40th)= it does not mention it
    5)maingot's surgery latest edition = 4
    6)bailey and love latest edition 25th=4
    7)speed coaching = 4
    8)bhatia coaching = 4
    the anatomy teacher at bhatia is the best teacher i have ever seen in my life..
    he is from AIIMS
    he said even gray's hints towards 4 and said that recently only maingot and bailey changed it to 4 sphincters and probably thats where aiims picked its ques from and secondly maingot's surgery is considered the bible of surgery...if it has updated it to be 4
    ans must be 4

    i will try to get you the exact daigrams asap :)

    ReplyDelete
  43. ok i was taking 26 th ans daf n 30 ans as 3 sphincters till nw...thank god u asked these q here otherwise i wud hav done these mistakes in exam tat too confidently... thanks:)

    ReplyDelete
  44. ANSWERS WITH SUITABLE EXPLANATIONS AND REFERENCES
    ques 1)while doing thoracocentesis,it is advisable to introduce needle along
    a)upper border of the rib.............answer (allindia 2005 ques no.3)
    b)lower border of the rib
    c)in the center of intercostal space
    d)in anterior part of intercostal space


    ques 2)all are true about nitric oxide except?
    a)acts through cAMP................answer(acts through cGMP) aiims nov 2007 ques 31
    b)helps to regulate vascular tone
    c)important role in penile erection
    d)present in low concentration in cigarette smokers

    ques 3)For PCR which of the following is not required?
    a)Taq polymerase
    b)d-NTP
    c)primer
    d)radiolabelled DNA probe...........answer (aiims may 2007 ques 21)


    ques 4)Section 377 deals with:-
    a) unnatural offences..............answer (aiims nov 2009)
    b) rape
    c) incest
    d) adultery

    ques 5)specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect
    a)true positives
    b)true negatives..........answer (aiims nov 2006 ques 50)
    c)false positives
    d)false negatives

    ques 6)nitrates can be used in all except?
    a)CHF
    b)oesophageal spasm
    c)cyanide poisoning
    d)renal colic...............used in biliary colic/and may be ureteric colic but not in renal colic(aiims nov 09)

    ques 7)gene for prion protein is present on
    a)chromosome 17
    b)chromosome 18
    c)chromosome 19
    d)chromosome 20..............answer (see my post on chromosomes in my blog)

    ques 8)all of the following vibrio species are halophilic except?
    a)V.cholerae..............answer (allindia 2005 ques 73)
    b)V.parahaemolyticus
    c)V.alginolyticus
    d)V.fluvialis

    ques 9)cluster headache is characterized by,except
    a)affects predominantly females..........answer(it affects males 4 times more than females ) ques 173 allindia 2005
    b)unilateral headache
    c)onset typically in 20-50 years of life
    d)associated with conjunctival congestion

    ques 10)non progressive contraction of oesophagus are
    a)primary
    b)secondary
    c)tertiary..............answer (allindia 2009 ques 206)
    d)quaternary

    ques 11)most common organism causing infectious oesophagitis?
    a)HPV
    b)candida
    c)e.coli
    d)streptococcus viridans
    answer = b (check aiims may 2009 ques 138 explanation) candidal esophagitis is m c form of infectious esophagitis.

    ques 12)nugent score is used to diagnose
    a)multiple sclerosis
    b)severity of abdominal trauma
    c)subarachnoid haemorrhage
    d)bacterial vaginosis
    answer = d)bacterial vaginosis....this thing was added in 17th edi harrison...and bacterial vaginosis is a hot topic in entrances
    so remember it

    ques 13)most common site of bony metastasis in carcinoma prostate?
    a)pelvis
    b)proximal femur
    c)lumbar spine
    d)thoracic spine
    answer= c)lumbar spine ref ques 126 nov 2002 aiims.....also robbins 7th edi

    ques 14)persistence of MORO's reflex beyond _____ months is suggestive of cerebral dysfunction?
    a)3
    b)4
    c)5
    d)6
    answer= d)6 months.....earlier it was 3 months but latest editions of nelson and ghai 7th edi say its 6 months beyond which moro's persistence is considered abnormal

    ques 15)all are features of horner's syndrome except?
    a)miosis
    b)anhydrosis
    c)ptosis
    d)exophthalmos
    answer= d) horner has enophthalmos

    ReplyDelete
  45. ques 16)in right middle ear pathology weber's test will be
    a)normal
    b)centralised
    c)lateralised to right side
    d)lateralised to left side
    ans= C ref ques 270 allindia 2004

    ques 17)pityriasis rosea,false is
    a)self limiting disorder
    b)papulosquamous disorder
    c)herald patch is first lesion to be seen,present in 80 % patients.
    d)caused by dermatophytes
    answ= d (etiology is unknown,possibly a virus) see ques 186 aiims nov 2006 .....this is a modified repeat,,,,important ques

    ques 18)pancuronium derivative with no vagolytic activity
    a)pipecuronium
    b)rocuronium
    c)vecuronium
    d)rapacuronium
    this is HP PG ques 2010
    answer = a)pipecuronium ref= ajay yadav 3rd edition page 91

    ques 19)epiphyseal bone tumour
    a)osteoclastoma.....epiphyseal
    b)ewing's sarcoma.....diaphyseal
    c)chondromyxoid fibroma.....metaphyseal
    d)osteosarcoma.........metaphyseal
    another HPPG ques 2010
    ans = a)

    ques 20)the radiation tolerance of whole liver is
    a)15 Gy
    b)30 Gy
    c)40 Gy
    d)45 Gy
    answer= c 40( stat repeat from allindia 2004 ques 287)

    ques 21)endophthalmitis includes all except
    a)vitreous
    b)sclera
    c)uvea
    d)retina
    this is allindia 2010 ques
    answer= b)sclera reference khurana

    ques 22)all are anti TNF-alpha drugs except?
    a)tirofiban
    b)infliximab
    c)etarencept
    d)adalimumab
    answer = a)tirofiban which is a GP2a/3b inhibitor and used as antiplatelet
    all others are anti TNF alpha(ref ques 111 nov aiims 2008)

    ques 23)which of the following is not true regarding bernard soulier syndrome?
    a)ristocetin aggregation is abnormal.
    b)aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal
    c)small platelets
    d)thrombocytopenia
    answer= c) in this large platelets are seen.....in glanzmann thromboaesthenia=>tiny platelets seen
    reference= ques 148 allindia mudit khanna 2007

    ques 24)which of the following is most commonly used in narcoanalysis?
    a)atropine sulphate
    b)scopolamine hydrobromide
    c)opium compounds
    d)thiopentone
    answer = d) thiopentone
    following are used in order of preference= thiopentone> amybarbital > scopolamine >phenobarbitone
    this is a ques from allindia 2010
    in allindia instead of thiopentone,,option D was phenobarbitone therefore answer in allindia was scopolamine

    ques 25)In lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma, M component , most commonly consists of
    a)IgG
    b)IgM
    c)IgA
    d)IgD
    ANSWER= b)IgM ,,,lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma is also k/a waldenstrom macroglobulinemia and in this M component mainly consists of IgM
    while in multiple myeloma M component mainly formed by IgG
    this was also from ALLINDIA 2010

    ques 26)deficiency of which of the following membrane proteins is most commonly involved in pathogenesis
    of PNH(paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria)
    a)DAF
    b)MIRL
    c)c8 binding protein
    d)all are equally involved
    answ= b) MIRL ,also k/s CD59....please read my blog post on PNH

    ques 27)all of the following antiepileptics act via prolongation of sodium channel inactivation except?
    a)phenytoin
    b)phenobarbitone
    c)topiramate
    d)lamotrigine
    ans= b)phenobarbitone.....barbiturates act via facilitation of gaba mediated chloride channel opening
    this topic is absolute must for pgi
    cram the figure in tripathi which contains mechanism of action of all antiepileptics(fig 28.2 4th edition)

    ques 28)which of the following is not included in major jone's criteria?
    a)pancarditis
    b)chorea
    c)arthritis
    d)elevated ESR
    answer = d (stat repeat ref= ques 117 may aiims 2009)

    ques 29)most common site of cholangiocarcinoma?
    a)distal biliary duct
    b)hilum
    c)intrahepatic duct
    d)multifocal
    another straight repeat
    ans=B ref= aiims nov 2008 ques 150

    ques 30)sphincter of oddi consists of
    a)2 sphincters
    b)3 sphincters
    c)4 sphincters
    d)5 sphincters
    answer in amit ashish may aiims 2009 ques 5 is 3 sphincters
    which is wrong...answer is c)4 sphincters (ref.bailey 25th edition...maingot's surgery)

    ReplyDelete